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701. The commonest infectious viral disease of man is:
A. Rabies
B. Chicken pox
C. Measles
D. Common cold
702. Chemical contaminants in water can lead to teratogenicity, which can be defined as:
A. Ability to cause abortion in pregnant women
B. Ability to cause heritable changes in DNA
C. Ability to cause cancerous growth
D. Ability to cause abnormalities in developing fetus
703. The therapy for genetic disorders which is aimed at mutant gene, to replace it with normal function gene by use of DNA/RNA tumor viruses is known as:
A. Active Immunotherpy
B. Genetic counseling
C. Gene therapy
D. Interferon therapy
704. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are seen for:
A. Echovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Influenza virus
705. Transformation is defined as:
A. Transfer of DNA into bacterium
B. Infection of bacterium with phage
C. Transfer of phage from one bacterium to another
D. Transfer of DNA to mammalian cell
706. The total number of viable bacteria present in a sample is better determined by:
A. Direct microscopic count
B. Colony count or pore plate method
C. Photometeric measurement of turbidity
D. Agglutination with specific antiserum
707. The organisms which are devoid of their own metabolic system and obtain energy from the host cell are called:
A. Autotrophs
B. Hypotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. L-forms
708. Which of the following antibiotic does not act on cell membrane?
A. Colistin
B. Polymyxin
C. Nystatin
D. Chloromycetin
709. ‘Epitopes’ is the:
A. Effective number of reacting sites on the antigen
B. Precipitate formed when both antigen and antibody react in appropriate proportions
C. Distinct combining sites on the surface of a given antigen which is responsible for the specificity of the immune response
D. Three dimensional lattice structures formed by antigen antibody reaction
710. Number of domains in IgM is:
A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Five
711. The immunoglobulin which can cross placenta is:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgD
712. 1 definite host and 2 intermediate hosts are seen in:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Echinococcus
D. Ascariasis
713. Which of the following can be prevented by filtering water?
A. Tapeworm
B. Roundworm
C. Pinworm
D. Guineaworm
714. Cutaneous larva migrant is caused by:
A. Ankylostoma braziliensis
B. Ankylostoma duodenale
C. Toxocara canis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
715. Which of the following crosses placenta?
A. Malarial parasite
B. Tuberculosis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Amoebiasis
716. The best route of administering Anti-lymphocytic globulin is:
A. Oral
B. S/C
C. I/M
D. I/V
717. All of the following human interferons are mainly induced by viral infections except:
A. Alpha
B. Beta
C. Gamma
D. Delta
718. Killed vaccines are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Less immunogenic
B. Protection lasts for a short period
C. Repeated doses (booster) required
D. Are given by injection only
719. The correct match is:
A. Small pox : Guarnieri bodies
B. Streptococcus : Quellung reaction
C. Corynebacterium : Paul Bunnel test
D. Vibrio : Schick test
720. The following penicillins are penicillinase resistant EXCEPT:
A. Methicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
721. Carbol fuchsin (used for Zeihl Neelsen staining) consists of all the following EXCEPT:
A. Basic fuchsin
B. Absolute alcohol
C. Formaldehyde
D. Aqueous phenol
722. “Step-wise” mutation for drug resistance is seen with:
A. Penicillin
B. Strepromycin
C. Garamycin
D. Kanamycin
723. Blood groups were first discovered by:
A. Landsteiner
B. Richet
C. Metchnikoff
D. Jenner
724. Which of the following, regarding acid-fastness of the two Mycobacteria is true?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is more acid-fast than Mycobacterium leprae
B. Mycobacterium leprae is more acid-fast than Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Both are equally acid-fast
D. Both are acid-fast but not acid-alcohol-fast
725. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. Plasmids
726. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome is caused by:
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Chlamydia
D. Fungus
727. Which of the following virus has double stranded RNA?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Polio
D. Reovirus
728. In electron microscope, wavelength of electrons is:
A. 0.005 nm
B. 0.005 μ
C. 0.5 μ
D. 0.05 nm
729. Gram positive bacteria are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Thicker
B. Absent lipids
C. Absent Teichoic acid
D. Absence of aromatic amino acids
730. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are:
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi bodies
D. Ribosomes
731. Mesosomes are:
A. A kind of Ribosome
B. A part of cell wall
C. Formed during cell lysis
D. Principle sites of respiratory enzymes
732. BSE was first reported from:
A. France
B. Canada
C. United Kingdom
D. Pakistan
733. COFAL test is used for the diagnosis of:
A. Equine infectious anemia
B. AIDS
C. Avian leukosis
D. Bovine leukosis
734. The following retroviruses produce tumors, EXCEPT:
A. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus
B. Bovine leukemia virus
C. Avian leukosis virus
D. Feline leukemia virus
735. Predilection site for parvovirus is
A. Bone marrow
B. Enteric epithelium
C. Fetus
D. All the above
736. Following Immunoglobulin classes manifest antiviral activity except:
A. Ig M
B. Ig G
C. Ig A
D. Ig E and Ig D
737. Term vaccine was coined by:
A. Robert Koch
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Needham
D. F. Redi
738. The following bacteria have a single curve
A. Borrelia
B. Vibrio
C. Treponema
D. Pasteurella
739. Albert’s stain (used for metachromatic granules staining) consists of all of the following except:
A. Toludine blue
B. Carbol fuchsin
C. Malachite green
D. Acetic acid
740. The cell wall of bacteria can be visualized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Azure II staining
B. Silver impregnation technique
C. Ultraviolet microscopy
D. Electron microscopy
741. Gram positive bacteria are more susceptible to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Sulfas and penicillin
B. Basic dyes
C. Anionic detergents
D. None of the above
742. Which of the following is not absent in prokaryotes?
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleolus
C. Muramic acid
D. Sterols
743. Genotypic variations are not:
A. Stable
B. Heritable
C. Influenced by environment
D. Not influenced by environment
744. The fungi which do not have a sexual stage are called:
A. Phycomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Fungi imperfecti
745. The counter stain used in Zeihl Neelsen staining is:
A. Carbol fuchsin
B. Gentian violet
C. Gram’s iodine
D. Loeffler’s methylene blue
746. Hepatitis A virus is:
A. Double stranded DNA
B. Single stranded DNA
C. Double stranded RNA
D. Single stranded RNA
747. Staphylococcus bacteria are:
A. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
B. Photosynthetic autotrophs
C. Chemosynthetic heterotrophs
D. Photosynthetic heterotrophs
748. Viruses come under the category:
A. Autotrophs
B. Hypotrophs
C. Heterotrophs
D. L-forms
749. Rhinovirus has:
A. Double stranded DNA
B. Single stranded DNA
C. Double stranded RNA
D. Single stranded RNA
750. For Staphylococcus, _________ is essential.
A. Glutamic acid
B. Tryptophan
C. Valine
D. Folic acid
751. Rubber catheters are best sterilized by:
A. Formalin vapor
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Gamma radiation
D. Autoclaving
752. Which of the following is highly sensitive to heat?
A. Staphylococcus
B. Pseudomonas
C. Clostridia
D. Treponema
753. Soiled dressings are destroyed by:
A. Hot air oven
B. Autoclaving
C. Boiling
D. Incineration
754. Spores of which of the following are used as a microbiological test of dry heat efficiency:
A. Toxigenic strains of E. coli
B. Toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani
C. Non-toxigenic strains of Clostridium tetani
D. Non-toxigenic strains of Proteus
755. The following is the direct stain for capsule:
A. Fleming’s Nigrosin method
B. Dry India ink film method
C. Welch method
D. Both “A” and “B”
756. The major mechanism of the lethal effect of UV light on bacteria is attributed to its effect on:
A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Mesosome
D. DNA
757. Koch’s old tuberculin is preserved in:
A. 70% formalin
B. 50% glycerine
C. 2% phenol
D. Absolute alcohol
758. “Turbidity test” for milk is used to detect its:
A. Pasteurization
B. Sterilization
C. Contamination
D. Lactobacillus contents
759. Microorganisms can be phagocytosed after
A. Opsonization
B. Hydrolysis
C. Cytolysis
D. Ingestion
760. The colors of acid fast and non-acid fast bacteria are respectively:
A. Blue, red
B. Red, blue
C. Red, black
D. Black, purple
761. In Albert’s staining, the volutin granules are stained ________ against a _______ background:
A. Bluish black, green
B. Pink, green
C. Green, black
D. Bluish, purple
762. ________ %age of ethanol is used for disinfection.
A. 30
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90
763. Most effective practical way of sterilization is:
A. Boiling
B. Autoclaving
C. Alpha rays
D. Gamma rays
764. Due to acidic nature of their protoplasm, bacteria have affinity for:
A. Basic dyes
B. Acidic dyes
C. Neutral dyes
D. All of the above
765. ______________ does not stimulate phagocytes.
A. Cytokines
B. C3b
C. Histamine
D. γ-IFN
766. Immunogenicity of an antigen is related with
A. Foreignness
B. Chemical nature
C. Immune response
D. None of these
767. Helper T cell does not activate
A. B-cells
B. Macrophages
C. T-cytotoxic cells
D. Mast cells
768. _________ is NOT sign of inflammation?
A. Sweating
B. Pain
C. Swelling
D. Redness
769. Natural transfer of Igs from mother to fetus is
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Non-specific
D. Artificial immunity
770. The most common antibody in the serum is
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgG
771. Which of the following is not involved in nonspecific defense?
A. Lacrimal apparatus
B. Sweat gland
C. Mucus
D. IgM
772. According to clonal deletion theory, self-reacting lymphoid cells become
A. Normal
B. Destroyed
C. Amplified
D. Activated
773. Which one of the following is not related to Hypersensitivity Type I?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Perforins
D. Leukotrienes
774. _________ is NOT related with Antigens?
A. Epitopes
B. Globulins
C. Hapten
D. Lipoproteins
775. IgM antibodies has been found to occur in
A. Pentamer
B. Monomer
C. Dimer
D. All forms
776. Autoimmunity develops due to
A. Immunological tolerance
B. Self-tolerance
C. Clonal deletion
D. None of the above
777. Tetanus is caused by the spread of
A. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
B. Exotoxin in parasympathetic system
C. Endotoxin in Sympathetic system
D. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
778. All of the following cause gas gangrene EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium welchii
C. Clostridium oedemaiens
D. Clostridium septicum
779. Following are anaerobic bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Nocardia asteroids
B. Actinomyces bovis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. None of the above
780. Spirocheates are motile by
A. Flagella
B. Cilia
C. Pseudopodia
D. all of above
781. Kauffman-White scheme is for classification of Salmonella?
A. Biochemically
B. Antigenically
C. Chemotyping
D. Phage typing
782. All of the following produce hemolysin EXCEPT:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Streptococcus hemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. E. coli
783. The following are characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa EXCEPT:
A. Produce pigment
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Produce local suppurative lesions
D. Spore forming and capsulated
784. The following antibodies CANNOT cross placenta EXCEPT:
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgG
785. All of the following are true about interferons EXCEPT:
A. Virus specific
B. Antiviral
C. Host cell specific
D. Class of proteins
786. The following statements regarding varicella and zoster are true EXCEPT ONE:
A. They are two diseases caused by one virus
B. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is the recurrent form of the disease
C. They have the same clinical picture
D. Varicella can be prevented by vaccination
787. The following statements about herpesviruses are true EXCEPT ONE:
A. There are eight human herpes viruses
B. All are morphologically identical
C. All are DNA-viruses
D. All cause vesicular rash
788. Chlamydia have the following properties EXCEPT:
A. Possess cell wall
B. Possess DNA as well as RNA
C. Are susceptible to antibiotics
D. Are not filterable
789. Regarding viral pathogenesis, which is WRONG:
A. Spread of virus in the body through different route
B. Humoral immunity but not cell mediated immunity (CMI) act against viruses
C. In cytocidal infection, cell usually die
D. Several RNA viruses can cause persistent infection
790. The following diseases are caused by enteroviruses EXCEPT ONE:
A. Pleurodynea
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Paralysis
D. Meningitis
791. Spirocheates are
A. Gram positive rods
B. Gram negative rods
C. Gram negative cocci
D. Acid Fast rods
792. Lyme disease is transmitted by
A. Flea
B. Ticks
C. Aedes
D. Culex
793. For virus, choose the WRONG STATEMENT:
A. The viral envelope contains lipoprotein
B. Viruses can replicate in non-living media
C. Viruses need live cells to grow
D. Viruses have no ribosome
794. Regarding Poliovirus, the WRONG statement is:
A. Two vaccine are available
B. There is no vaccine for polio
C. Can be isolated from throat swab or stool
D. Sub-clinical infections are common
795. In structure and classification of viruses, circle the WRONG STATEMENT:
A. Icosahedral symmetry has 12 vertices
B. Helical symmetry such as Othomyxo virus
C. Transcription is the formation of protein
D. Translation is the formation of protein
796. Regarding HCV & HBV, circle the correct answer:
A. HBV is dsRNA
B. HCV is ssRNA
C. Both viruses can grow in cell culture
D. HBV has not chronicity complication
797. Regarding viral hepatitis, circle the WRONG:
A. HCV-Abs can’t be diagnosed in lab by EIA test
B. The risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma by HCV are: underlying liver disease, alcohol, age
C. HCV-DNA integrate into liver cell chromosomes in most HCC patients.
D. The RNA and protein of HDV is surrounded by HBsAg
798. An abortive infection is one in which:
A. The infected cells are killed
B. Progeny virus is not produced
C. Transplacental infection of the fetus occurs
D. Cell multiplication is stopped
799. The human diploid cell vaccine is used for prevention of:
A. Rabies
B. Varicella
C. Hepatitis A
D. Yellow fever
800. The following viral diseases are characterized by maculopapular rash EXCEPT ONE:
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Erythema infectiosum
D. Herpangina
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