1001. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen by
A. Ultracentrifuge
B. X-Ray crystallography
C. Light microscope
D. Electron microscope ✅
A. Ultracentrifuge
B. X-Ray crystallography
C. Light microscope
D. Electron microscope ✅
1002. Which of the following does not act as a restriction enzyme?
A. EcorI
B. BamHI
C. HindIII
D. Polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase ✅
A. EcorI
B. BamHI
C. HindIII
D. Polydeoxyribonucleotide synthase ✅
1003. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for making a DNA copy from RNA?
A. Reverse transcriptase ✅
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polI
D. RNA polII
A. Reverse transcriptase ✅
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polI
D. RNA polII
1004. Generally, a plasmid vector contains how many elements?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three ✅
D. Four
A. One
B. Two
C. Three ✅
D. Four
1005. To make the recombinant plasmid permeable to DNA molecules, which of the chemicals is added?
A. MgCl2
B. CaCl2 ✅
C. NaCl
D. HCl
A. MgCl2
B. CaCl2 ✅
C. NaCl
D. HCl
1006. In which stage of genetic engineering a probe is used?
A. Cleaving DNA
B. Recombining DNA
C. Cloning
D. Screening ✅
A. Cleaving DNA
B. Recombining DNA
C. Cloning
D. Screening ✅
1007. Which of the following temperature best suits for the growth and multiplication of transformed cells?
A. 35°C
B. 36°C
C. 37°C ✅
D. 30°C
A. 35°C
B. 36°C
C. 37°C ✅
D. 30°C
1008. Electrophoresis helps to separate:
A. DNA segments ✅
B. Cells from DNA
C. Tissues
D. RNA from DNA
A. DNA segments ✅
B. Cells from DNA
C. Tissues
D. RNA from DNA
1009. Which of the following is a DNA element that instructs RNA polymerase where to bind on DNA?
A. Operator
B. Promoter ✅
C. Enhancer
D. Hormone response element
A. Operator
B. Promoter ✅
C. Enhancer
D. Hormone response element
1010. Site directed mutagenesis facilitated research on:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins ✅
C. Lipids
D. Fats
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins ✅
C. Lipids
D. Fats
1011. Where does a restriction endonuclease cuts DNA?
A. Ligation site
B. Recognition sequence ✅
C. Ori
D. Replication site
A. Ligation site
B. Recognition sequence ✅
C. Ori
D. Replication site
1012. Which of the following statements is true about a vector?
A. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors ✅
B. All vectors are plasmids
C. Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
D. Fungi can also be used as vectors
A. Plasmids, phages can be used as vectors ✅
B. All vectors are plasmids
C. Cyanobacteria can also be used as vectors
D. Fungi can also be used as vectors
1013. Which of the following is true about plasmids?
A. They are present in all organisms
B. They are present in bacteria only ✅
C. They are present in bacteria and phages
D. They are present in plants and animals
A. They are present in all organisms
B. They are present in bacteria only ✅
C. They are present in bacteria and phages
D. They are present in plants and animals
1014. DNA Ligase, used in recombinant DNA technology is obtained from:
A. E. coli only
B. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage ✅
C. Saccharomyces
D. Retroviruses
A. E. coli only
B. E. coli and also Ligase encoded by T4 phage ✅
C. Saccharomyces
D. Retroviruses
1015. The main aim of human genome project is:
A. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body ✅
B. To introduce new genes to human beings
C. To remove disease causing genes from humans
D. To improve techniques of finger printing
A. To identify and sequence of all the genes present in the human body ✅
B. To introduce new genes to human beings
C. To remove disease causing genes from humans
D. To improve techniques of finger printing
1016. The work ‘Hybridization’ in DNA finger printing means:
A. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe ✅
B. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
C. Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
D. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
A. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA sample with probe ✅
B. Pairing between the nucleotides of DNA and mRNA
C. Pairing between the nucleotides of probe with mRNA
D. Pairing between the nucleosides with mRNA
1017. Southern blotting technique is used in
A. Monoclonal antibody production
B. In vitro culture
C. Genetic finger printing ✅
D. Polymerase chain reaction
A. Monoclonal antibody production
B. In vitro culture
C. Genetic finger printing ✅
D. Polymerase chain reaction
1018. During DNA profiling, DNA nucleotides hybridized with probe can be detected through:
A. Electrophoresis
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Autoradiography ✅
D. Hybridoma
A. Electrophoresis
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Autoradiography ✅
D. Hybridoma
1019. The effects of protein on an entire organism is described in:
A. Phenotypic function ✅
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics
A. Phenotypic function ✅
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics
1020. The network of interactions engaged in by protein at cellular level is described in:
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function ✅
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function ✅
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics
1021. DNA unwinding is done by:
A. Ligase
B. Helicase ✅
C. Topoisomerase
D. Hexonuclease
A. Ligase
B. Helicase ✅
C. Topoisomerase
D. Hexonuclease
1022. Sequencing of genomic DNA is included in:
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics ✅
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function
D. Structural genomics ✅
1023. Collection of microscopic DNA spots attached to solid surface are:
A. Ortholog
B. Synteny
C. Paralog
D. Microarray ✅
A. Ortholog
B. Synteny
C. Paralog
D. Microarray ✅
1024. Transgenic organisms are generally:
A. Extinct organisms
B. Naturally occurring and endemic
C. Produced by traditional plant breeding technique
D. Produced by gene transfer technology ✅
A. Extinct organisms
B. Naturally occurring and endemic
C. Produced by traditional plant breeding technique
D. Produced by gene transfer technology ✅
1025. Gene therapy is a technique preferred to cure inherited diseases by:
A. Repairing the faulty gene
B. Introducing the correct copy of the gene ✅
C. Adding new cells to the body
D. PCR
A. Repairing the faulty gene
B. Introducing the correct copy of the gene ✅
C. Adding new cells to the body
D. PCR
1026. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming secondary tumors is called:
A. Diapedesis
B. Metastasis ✅
C. Proliferation
D. Apoptosis
A. Diapedesis
B. Metastasis ✅
C. Proliferation
D. Apoptosis
1027. The enzyme used in the formation of cDNA from mRNA is:
A. Polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Reverse transcriptase ✅
D. Gyrase
A. Polymerase
B. Helicase
C. Reverse transcriptase ✅
D. Gyrase
1028. Oncogenes do not encode for:
A. Trans-membrane protein receptors
B. Growth factors
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase ✅
D. Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases
A. Trans-membrane protein receptors
B. Growth factors
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase ✅
D. Cytoplasmic G-proteins and protein kinases
1029. Programmed cell death is termed as:
A. Metastasis
B. Apoptosis ✅
C. Proliferation
D. Mitotic termination
A. Metastasis
B. Apoptosis ✅
C. Proliferation
D. Mitotic termination
1030. Which of the following could be coded by a tumor-suppressor gene?
A. A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle
B. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis
C. A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme ✅
D. A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway
A. A protein that helps prevent progression through cell cycle
B. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis
C. A protein that codes for a DNA repair enzyme ✅
D. A protein that forms part of a growth factor signaling pathway
1031. The characteristic of malignant other than a benign tumor is:
A. Undergoes metastasis ✅
B. Develops blood supply
C. Cell divides an unlimited number of times
D. Grows without needing a growth signal
A. Undergoes metastasis ✅
B. Develops blood supply
C. Cell divides an unlimited number of times
D. Grows without needing a growth signal
1032. DNA replication is:
A. Conservative
B. Non-conservative
C. Semi-conservative ✅
D. None of these
A. Conservative
B. Non-conservative
C. Semi-conservative ✅
D. None of these
1033. The precise biochemical activity of a protein is described in:
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function ✅
D. Structural genomics
A. Phenotypic function
B. Cellular function
C. Molecular function ✅
D. Structural genomics
1034. Which of the following is true about DNA polymerase?
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction ✅
B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction ✅
B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
1035. Which of the following enzymes is the principal replication enzyme in E. coli?
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA polymerase III ✅
D. None of these
A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase II
C. DNA polymerase III ✅
D. None of these
1036. The enzyme used to join bits of DNA is:
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase ✅
C. Endonuclease
D. Primase
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA ligase ✅
C. Endonuclease
D. Primase
1037. If the mutation has a negligible effect on the function of a gene, it is known as a:
A. Silent mutation ✅
B. Frame shift mutation
C. Substitution mutation
D. Insertion mutation
A. Silent mutation ✅
B. Frame shift mutation
C. Substitution mutation
D. Insertion mutation
1038. Transcription is catalyzed by:
A. DNA-dependent RNA polymerases ✅
B. RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
C. Reverse transcriptases
D. DNA ligases
A. DNA-dependent RNA polymerases ✅
B. RNA-dependent DNA polymerases
C. Reverse transcriptases
D. DNA ligases
1039. Where does RNA polymerase bind DNA?
A. Promoter ✅
B. Operator
C. Enhancer
D. None of these
A. Promoter ✅
B. Operator
C. Enhancer
D. None of these
1040. Which of the following has the self-repairing mechanisms?
A. DNA and RNA
B. DNA, RNA and protein
C. Only DNA ✅
D. DNA and proteins
A. DNA and RNA
B. DNA, RNA and protein
C. Only DNA ✅
D. DNA and proteins
1041. An alteration in a nucleotide sequence that changes a triplet coding for an amino acid into a termination codon is:
A. Nonsense mutation ✅
B. Mutagenesis
C. Mutation
D. Mutagen
A. Nonsense mutation ✅
B. Mutagenesis
C. Mutation
D. Mutagen
1042. A point mutation that replaces a purine with another purine, or a pyrimidine with another pyrimidine:
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Transition mutation ✅
D. Transversion
A. Nonsense mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Transition mutation ✅
D. Transversion
1043. The enzyme of E. coli is a nuclease that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by homologous recombination:
A. DNA glycosylase ✅
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
A. DNA glycosylase ✅
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
1044. Which of the following involves remarkable capacity of short segment of DNA to move from one place to another?
A. DNA transposition ✅
B. DNA replication
C. Translation
D. Transcription
A. DNA transposition ✅
B. DNA replication
C. Translation
D. Transcription
1045. Which of the following contain only the sequences required for transposition and the genes for proteins that promote the process?
A. Insertion sequences
B. Complex transposons
C. Transposons ✅
D. Chromosomes
A. Insertion sequences
B. Complex transposons
C. Transposons ✅
D. Chromosomes
1046. Which of the following pathogen produces “walking pneumonia” i.e., a relatively mild lung infection that only rarely requires hospitalization?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✅
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✅
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum
1047. Binding of the prokaryotic DNA dependent RNA polymerase to promoter site is inhibited by:
A. Rifampicin ✅
B. Tetracycline
C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin
A. Rifampicin ✅
B. Tetracycline
C. Penicillin
D. Streptomycin
1048. First nucleic acid synthesizing enzyme discovered is:
A. Polynucleotide phosphorylase ✅
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA ligase
A. Polynucleotide phosphorylase ✅
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA ligase
1049. 70S prokaryotic ribosome is the complex of:
A. 30S + 50S ✅
B. 30S + 40S
C. 20S + 60S
D. 20S + 30S
A. 30S + 50S ✅
B. 30S + 40S
C. 20S + 60S
D. 20S + 30S
1050. 80S eukaryotic ribosome is the complex of:
A. 60S and 40S ✅
B. 40S and 20S
C. 60S and 50S
D. 30S and 20S
A. 60S and 40S ✅
B. 40S and 20S
C. 60S and 50S
D. 30S and 20S
1051. The main function of t-RNA is:
A. Proof reading
B. Inhibits protein synthesis
C. Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes ✅
D. None of these
A. Proof reading
B. Inhibits protein synthesis
C. Identifies amino acids and transport them to ribosomes ✅
D. None of these
1052. Cell-mediated immunity is well documented to be critical for control of which of following pathogen?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum
1053. Which of the following plays a key role in inducing shock and fever during Gram-negative sepsis?
A. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. Lipopolysaccharide ✅
A. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. Lipopolysaccharide ✅
1054. Which of the following binds to MHC and specific Vβ chains of the T cell receptor?
A. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. Lipopolysaccharide ✅
A. Cholera toxin
B. Tetanus toxin
C. Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. Lipopolysaccharide ✅
1055. Growth of microbes in a solid media is identified by the formation of?
A. pellicle at the top of media
B. colonies ✅
C. sediment at the bottom
D. turbidity
A. pellicle at the top of media
B. colonies ✅
C. sediment at the bottom
D. turbidity
1056. Which microorganism(s) among the following perform photosynthesis by utilizing light?
A. Cyanobacteria ✅
B. Fungi
C. Viruses
D. Cyanobacteria, Fungi and Viruses
A. Cyanobacteria ✅
B. Fungi
C. Viruses
D. Cyanobacteria, Fungi and Viruses
1057. Repressors bind to:
A. Promoter
B. Enhancer
C. Operator ✅
D. Hormone response element
A. Promoter
B. Enhancer
C. Operator ✅
D. Hormone response element
1058. The function of enzyme involved in base excision repair is:
A. Addition of correct base
B. Addition of correct nucleotide
C. Removal of incorrect base ✅
D. Removal of phosphodiester bond
A. Addition of correct base
B. Addition of correct nucleotide
C. Removal of incorrect base ✅
D. Removal of phosphodiester bond
1059. Which of the following solves the problem of shortening of chromosomes in each cell cycle?
A. DNA ligase
B. Endonuclease
C. Telomerase ✅
D. RNA polymerase
A. DNA ligase
B. Endonuclease
C. Telomerase ✅
D. RNA polymerase
1060. HIV may not respond to:
A. Nucleoside analogues
B. Protease inhibitors
C. Neuraminidase inhibitors ✅
D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
A. Nucleoside analogues
B. Protease inhibitors
C. Neuraminidase inhibitors ✅
D. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
1061. Which of the following inactivates the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Cycloheximide ✅
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Ricin
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Cycloheximide ✅
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Ricin
1062. Which of the following inhibits initiation at higher concentrations?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Streptomycin ✅
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Ricin
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Streptomycin ✅
C. Diphtheria toxin
D. Ricin
1063. Posttranslational modification of many eukaryotic proteins begins in the
A. Endoplasmic reticulum ✅
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Nucleus
A. Endoplasmic reticulum ✅
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Nucleus
1064. How many t-RNAs are required to translate all 61 codons?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 30
D. 29 ✅
A. 31
B. 32
C. 30
D. 29 ✅
1065. ________________ makes an A-B toxin that ADP ribosylates a G protein in the host cell.
A. Vibrio cholerae ✅
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Vibrio cholerae ✅
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Neisseria meningitidis
1066. Which among the following are produced by microorganisms?
A. Fermented dairy products
B. Breads
C. Alcoholic beverages
D. All of these ✅
A. Fermented dairy products
B. Breads
C. Alcoholic beverages
D. All of these ✅
1067. Which of following serves as bactericidal agent?
A. Ribonuclease
B. Lysozyme ✅
C. Cytochrome c
D. Myoglobin
A. Ribonuclease
B. Lysozyme ✅
C. Cytochrome c
D. Myoglobin
1068. Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?
A. Oceans ✅
B. Freshwater habitats
C. 0.45% sodium chloride
D. Red blood cells placed in fresh water
A. Oceans ✅
B. Freshwater habitats
C. 0.45% sodium chloride
D. Red blood cells placed in fresh water
1069. LPS in cell walls is characteristic of?
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria ✅
C. Fungi
D. Algae
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria ✅
C. Fungi
D. Algae
1070. What are the blood serum proteins produced by animals called?
A. Enzymes
B. Antibodies ✅
C. Amino acids
D. Toxins
A. Enzymes
B. Antibodies ✅
C. Amino acids
D. Toxins
1071. Bdellovibrios come under which group of microorganisms?
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria ✅
C. Fungi
D. Algae
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria ✅
C. Fungi
D. Algae
1072. Polysaccharide capsule of ____ is antiphagocytic.
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Neisseria meningitidis ✅
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Neisseria meningitidis ✅
1073. __________________ is the most common cause of hospital acquired diarrheal infection.
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
C. Clostridium difficile ✅
D. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
C. Clostridium difficile ✅
D. Neisseria meningitidis
1074. A codon contains how many nucleotides
A. One
B. Two
C. Three ✅
D. Four
A. One
B. Two
C. Three ✅
D. Four
1075. The initiation codon is
A. AUG ✅
B. UAA
C. UAG
D. UGA
A. AUG ✅
B. UAA
C. UAG
D. UGA
1076. Which of the following are not DNA viruses?
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Influenza A virus ✅
C. CMV virus
D. Parvovirus
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Influenza A virus ✅
C. CMV virus
D. Parvovirus
1077. The termination codon is not
A. AUG ✅
B. UAA
C. UAG
D. UGA
A. AUG ✅
B. UAA
C. UAG
D. UGA
1078. The genetic code translated the language of:
A. Proteins into that of RNA
B. Amino acids into that of RNA
C. RNA into that of proteins ✅
D. RNA into that of DNA
A. Proteins into that of RNA
B. Amino acids into that of RNA
C. RNA into that of proteins ✅
D. RNA into that of DNA
1079. Which out of the following is not an example of inducible operon?
A. Lactose operon
B. Galactose operon
C. Maltose operon
D. Tryptophan operon ✅
A. Lactose operon
B. Galactose operon
C. Maltose operon
D. Tryptophan operon ✅
1080. ____ is an intracellular pathogen and it breaks out of the phagosome and grows freely in the cytoplasm.
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes ✅
C. Clostridium difficile
D. E. coli
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes ✅
C. Clostridium difficile
D. E. coli
1081. Infection caused by __________ is usually divided into primary, secondary and tertiary phases.
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Borrelia burgdorferi ✅
D. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Borrelia burgdorferi ✅
D. Neisseria meningitidis
1082. Toxin produced by ____________ acts primarily on peripheral nerves.
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum ✅
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Clostridium botulinum ✅
1083. Total Magnification is obtained by__________.
A. Magnifying power of the objective lens
B. Magnifying power of eyepiece
C. Magnifying power of condenser lens
D. Both “A” and “B” ✅
A. Magnifying power of the objective lens
B. Magnifying power of eyepiece
C. Magnifying power of condenser lens
D. Both “A” and “B” ✅
1084. Which of following produces life-threating disease that can be well treated by fluid replacement?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Vibrio cholerae ✅
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Vibrio cholerae ✅
1085. Which of the following intracellular pathogen has a propensity to cause disease in pregnant women due to their weakened cytotoxic T-cell response?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Listeria monocytogenes ✅
D. Clostridium botulinum
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Listeria monocytogenes ✅
D. Clostridium botulinum
1086. Which of the following proteins directly inhibits phagocytosis?
A. M protein ✅
B. Listeriolysin O
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Cholera toxin
A. M protein ✅
B. Listeriolysin O
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Cholera toxin
1087. What are ribosomes composed of?
A. Proteins
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Proteins and RNA ✅
A. Proteins
B. DNA
C. RNA
D. Proteins and RNA ✅
1088. Which of the following can easily be visualized by Gram staining?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Aspergillus flavis
D. Neisseria meningitidis ✅
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Aspergillus flavis
D. Neisseria meningitidis ✅
1089. Disease caused by __________ typically shows indolent (slow) progression.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
1090. Which among the following come under Gram-positive eubacteria?
A. Clostridium
B. Actinomyces
C. Rhizobium
D. Clostridium, and Actinomyces ✅
A. Clostridium
B. Actinomyces
C. Rhizobium
D. Clostridium, and Actinomyces ✅
1091. According to Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology, prokaryotes that lack a cell wall belong to the group?
A. Gracilicutes
B. Firmicutes
C. Tenericutes ✅
D. Mendosicutes
A. Gracilicutes
B. Firmicutes
C. Tenericutes ✅
D. Mendosicutes
1092. Which among the following kingdoms were proposed by Whittaker?
A. Monera
B. Protista,Fungi
C. Plantae,Animalia
D. Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia ✅
A. Monera
B. Protista,Fungi
C. Plantae,Animalia
D. Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia ✅
1093. Which part of the compound microscope helps in gathering and focusing light rays on the specimen?
A. Eyepiece lens
B. Objective lens
C. Condenser lens ✅
D. Magnifying lens
A. Eyepiece lens
B. Objective lens
C. Condenser lens ✅
D. Magnifying lens
1094. Resolving power of a microscope is a function of:
A. Wavelength of light used
B. Numerical aperture of lens system
C. Refractive index
D. Wavelength of light used and numerical aperture of lens system ✅
A. Wavelength of light used
B. Numerical aperture of lens system
C. Refractive index
D. Wavelength of light used and numerical aperture of lens system ✅
1095. In the classification of bacteria according to shape. Which among the following refer to cuboidal arrangement of bacterial cells?
A. Tetrads
B. Staphylococci
C. Sarcinae ✅
D. Streptococci
A. Tetrads
B. Staphylococci
C. Sarcinae ✅
D. Streptococci
1096. Which of the following pathogens can establish a persistent infection of the gall bladder, making the infected individual a chronic carrier who can shed the organism for years?
A. Salmonella typhi ✅
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium botulinum
A. Salmonella typhi ✅
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Clostridium botulinum
1097. The greatest resolution in light microscopy can be obtained with ___________.
A. Shortest wavelength of visible light used ✅
B. An objective with minimum numerical aperture
C. Longest wavelength of visible light used
D. Both “A” and “B”
A. Shortest wavelength of visible light used ✅
B. An objective with minimum numerical aperture
C. Longest wavelength of visible light used
D. Both “A” and “B”
1098. The correct order of taxonomic groups from higher to lower rank is?
A. Kingdom—Order—Class—Family
B. Order—Class—Division—Family—Genus—Species
C. Kingdom—Order—Division—Family—Class—Genus—Species
D. Kingdom—Division—Class—Order—Family—Genus—Species ✅
A. Kingdom—Order—Class—Family
B. Order—Class—Division—Family—Genus—Species
C. Kingdom—Order—Division—Family—Class—Genus—Species
D. Kingdom—Division—Class—Order—Family—Genus—Species ✅
1099. In fluorescence microscopy, which of the following performs the function of removing all light except the blue light?
A. Exciter filter
B. Barrier filter
C. Dichroic mirror ✅
D. Mercury arc lamp
A. Exciter filter
B. Barrier filter
C. Dichroic mirror ✅
D. Mercury arc lamp
1100. In light microscopy, which of following is usually used as fixatives prior to staining technique?
A. Osmic acid
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Heat
D. Osmic acid, glutaraldehyde, heat ✅
A. Osmic acid
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Heat
D. Osmic acid, glutaraldehyde, heat ✅
