MCQ Test body { font-family: Arial, sans-serif; margin: 20px; } .question { margin-bottom: 20px; } .tick { color: green; /* Green color for tick mark */ font-weight: bold; } .question-title { font-weight: bold; /* Bold the questions */ }
401. To influence microbes, mutation must be:
A. Inheritable
B. Permanent
C. Beneficial
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
402. Which of following features is NOT true for plasmid?
A. It is a circular piece of DNA.
B. It is required for normal cell function.
C. It is found in bacteria.
D. It can be transferred from cell to cell.
403. What is the smallest unit of heredity?
A. Chromosome
B. Gene
C. Codon
D. Nucleotide
404. _____ is ‘general feeling of illness and discomfort’.
A. Cystitis
B. Malaise
C. Arthritis
D. Lymphopenia
405. Point mutation involves
A. Deletion
B. Insertion
C. Duplication
D. Change in single base pair
406. ________ does not have any normal microbiota.
A. Upper respiratory tract
B. Ovary
C. External genitalia
D. Skin
407. Salt and sugar preserve food because they:
A. Make them acid
B. Produce a hypotonic environment
C. Produce a hypertonic environment
D. Deplete nutrients
408. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive CAMP test, the causative agent is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E. coli
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Haemophilus
409. ___ two hallmarks of the adaptive immune system?
A. Immediate and Broad
B. Innate and Short
C. Specificity and Memory
D. Non-specific and Fast
410. Which of the following mutations would likely to cause the greatest impact?
A. Silent
B. Missense
C. Nonsense
D. Inversion
411. X-rays causes mutation by:
A. Deletion
B. Transition
C. Transversion
D. Base substitution
412. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______?
A. Capsule
B. Exotoxin
C. Coagulase
D. Endotoxin
413. ______enzyme of HIV-1 converts RNA to DNA.
A. Protease
B. Integrase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. RNase
414. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by?
A. Animal scratch
B. Contact with urine from infected animal
C. Animal bite
D. Arthropod vector
415. Which causes food INTOXICATION?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Salmonella
416. Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever (CCHF) is transmitted by a vector i.e. __________.
A. Mosquitoes
B. Ticks
C. Fleas
D. Sand-fly
417. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT?
A. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route.
B. It has only trophozoite stage.
C. It can be diagnosed by the string test
D. It can divide by binary fission.
418. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT?
A. They are spore forming.
B. They are non-fastidious.
C. They produce endotoxin.
D. They have polypeptide capsule.
419. Culture media are commonly sterilized by:
A. Autoclaving
B. β-radiation
C. Hot air oven
D. Tyndallization
420. All of the following are functions of IgG EXCEPT:
A. Opsonize bacteria
B. Be secreted into mucus
C. Activate complement
D. Cross the placenta
421. Those mutations that arise in the absence of known mutagen are known:
A. Induced mutations
B. Fused mutations
C. Spontaneous mutations
D. None of the above
422. DNA is copied during a process called:
A. Transformation
B. Replication
C. Translation
D. Transcription
423. An example/examples of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is/are:
A. Unbroken skin
B. Cilia in respiratory tract
C. Lysozyme in saliva
D. All of these
424. _____is nonspecific host defense related to trachea?
A. Lacrimation
B. Ciliary Lining
C. Desquamation
D. Lactic acid
425. Autoclaving is done in:
A. Dry air at 121oC and 15 lbs pressure
B. Steam at 100oC for 30 minutes
C. Steam at 121oC for 30 minutes
D. Dry air at 160 oC for 30 minutes
426. Culture media are sterilized by:
A. Autoclaving
B. β-radiation
C. Hot air oven
D. Tyndallization
427. pH of Sabouraud dextrose agar is adjusted to:
A. 1-2
B. 4-6
C. 6-8
D. 8-10
428. Monocytes are ______________ leukocytes that develop into ___________?
A. granular, phagocytes
B. agranular, mast cells
C. agranular, macrophages
D. granular, T cells
429. Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?
A. Dry heat
B. Ether
C. Ethanol
D. Chlorohexidine
430. _____________ is included in GALT.
A. Thymus
B. Tonsils
C. Peyer’s patches
D. Breast lymph nodes
431. _________ is the MOST resistant to antiseptics?
A. Spore
B. Prion
C. Cyst
D. Fungus
432. Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain?
A. Tumor
B. Calor
C. Dolor
D. Rubor
433. An example of an exogenous pyrogen is ________.
A. Interleukin-1
B. Complement
C. Interferon
D. Endotoxin
434. ______________ is an example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation.
A. Collagen
B. Histamine
C. Complement C5a
D. Interferon
435. ______ is an example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates chemotaxis.
A. Tumor necrosis factor
B. Serotonin
C. Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor
D. Interleukin-2
436. _____interferon, produced by T lymphocytes, activates cells called _____and is involved in destroying viruses.
A. Beta, lymphocytes
B. Gamma, fibroblasts
C. Alpha, natural killer cells
D. Beta, fibroblasts
437. Which of the following is the end-product of the complement system?
A. Properdin
B. Cascade reaction
C. Membrane attack complex
D. Complement factor C9
438. TNF is NOT involved in the which process?
A. Chemotaxis of phagocytes
B. Fever
C. The inflammatory response
D. The classic complement pathway
439. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Solid media are enrichment media
B. Nutrient broth is basal media
C. Agar adds nutrient to media
D. Chocolate agar is selective media
440. Choose the correct ones for the decreasing order of resistance to sterilization:
A. Prions, bacterial spores, bacteria
B. Bacterial spores, bacteria, Prions
C. Bacteria, Prions, Bacterial spores
D. Prions, bacteria, bacterial spores
441. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by phagocytes is?
A. Pyrogen
B. Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
C. Complement
D. Lectin
442. Which of the followings microorganism is used as indicator in autoclave?
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Bacillus stereothermophilus
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Clostridium botulinum
443. MacConkey agar is an example of:
A. Enrichment medium
B. Selective medium
C. Differential medium
D. Both “B” and “C”
444. Virus mediated transfer of DNA from one cell to another is known as:
A. Transfection
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Transcription
445. Bacterial may acquire characteristics by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Taking up soluble DNA from the environment
B. Through bacteriophages
C. Through conjugation
D. Incorporating part of host DNA
446. The __________ is responsible for antibiotic resistance is bacteria due to slime production.
A. Co-aggregation
B. Biofilm formation
C. Mutation evolving in altered target site for antibiotic
D. Mutation evolving a target bypass mechanism
447. Which one statement is correct regarding functions of plasmid?
A. Involved in multidrug resistance transfer
B. Imparts capsule formation
C. Imparts pilli formation
D. All of the above
448. Phage typing is useful as an epidemiological tool in all, EXCEPT:
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella dysenteriae
449. The segment of DNA between chromosomal and extrachromosomal DNA molecules within cells are:
A. Cosmids
B. Plasmids
C. Transposons
D. Episomes
450. True about bacteriophage is:
A. Can transmit toxin to bacteria
B. Bacterial which transmits DNA to another bacteria
C. Causes transformation of bacteria
D. Is a virus which invades bacteria
451. Drug resistance transfer by bacteriophage involves:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Convocation
D. Transduction
452. S. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive
B. Forms white colonies
C. A common cause of UTI
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve
453. A cook prepared sandwiches for 10 people going for picnic. Eight out of them develop sever gastroenteritis within 4-6 hrs of consumption of the sandwiches. It is likely that on study the cook is found to be carrier of:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
454. Methicillin resistance in S. aureus is due to:
A. β-lactamase
B. MECA gene
C. AMPC gene
D. Porin develop
455. Acute hematogenous osteomyelitis is commonly caused by:
A. S. aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. E. coli
D. Pneumococcus
456. Staphylococcus aureus remains in the skin for longer period because of:
A. Catalase
B. Coagulase
C. DNAase
D. Hyaluronidase
457. Eight months after prosthetic valve replacement, which of the following pathogen can cause infective endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. All of these
458. Staphylococcus aureus secretes all, EXCEPT:
A. Lipase
B. Cellulose
C. Coagulase
D. Lecithinase
459. Lancefield grouping of streptococci is done using:
A. M protein
B. Group C carbohydrate antigen
C. Group C peptidoglycan cell wall
D. M antigen
460. Streptococci causing dental caries:
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus mutans
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus bovis
461. Quelling phenomenon is seen in:
A. Pneumococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Hemophilus
462. A person from village is complaining of development of pustules. Extract from pus has shown Gram-positive cocci, showing hemolysis, catalase negative, identified as a group of streptococci. Following test is used:
A. Bacitracin sensitivity
B. Novobiocin sensitivity
C. Optochin sensitivity
D. Hemolysis test
463. Hot cold phenomenon is seen due to which toxin of staphylococci:
A. Alpha hemolysin
B. Beta hemolysin
C. Gamma hemolysin
D. Theta hemolysin
464. Staphylococcus differ from Streptococcus by:
A. Coagulase test
B. Phosphatase test
C. Catalase test
D. Gram-negative
465. Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-coagulase Staphylococci?
A. They are non-pathogenic
B. They commonly infect indwelling prosthesis
C. They may cause scarlet fever
D. They are separated by Gram’s staining
466. Catalase positive, β-hemolytic Staphylococci is:
A. S. aureus
B. S. epidermidis
C. S. saprophyticus
D. Pneumococci
467. An infant with neonatal meningitis has a positive CAMP test, the causative agent is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. E. coli
D. Hemophilus influenzae
468. Most common organism responsible for postsplenectomy infections include:
A. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Influenza Virus
469. In a case of neonatal meningitis, pathogen was found to have properties of β-hemolysis, bacitracin resistance, CAMP positive. Which of following is most likely causative agent?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Enterococcus faecalis
470. A β-hemolytic bacterial isolate is resistant to vancomycin, shows growth in 6.5 % NaCl, is non-bile sensitive. It is likely to be:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus bovis
D. Enterococcus faecalis
471. Sputum specimen of a 70 years old male culture showed α-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. Further processing of this organism is most likely to yield:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Legionella
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
472. Most common organism causing sore throat:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Hemophilus
C. Bacillus
D. Streptococcus
473. Quellung reaction is due to:
A. Mitochondrial swelling
B. Capsular swelling
C. RBC swelling
D. Cell wall swelling
474. Griffith demonstrated biotransformation with:
A. Enterococcus
B. Gonococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
475. A person has received complete immunization against tetanus 10years ago. Now he presents with a clean wound without any lacerations from an injury sustained 2.5 hours ago. He should now be given:
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid
C. Human tetanus globulin
D. Human tetanus globulin and single dose of toxoid
476. All of the following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis EXCEPT:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Listeria monocytogenes
477. Which deficiency would cause Neisseria infection?
A. C9
B. C5
C. C7
D. All of the above
478. Differentiation of Neisseria gonorrheae and Neisseria meningitidis is by:
A. Glucose fermentation
B. VP reaction
C. Indole test
D. Maltose fermentation
479. ______ is catalase positive but coagulase negative.
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Enterococci
480. A pus cultured on chocolate agar shows Gram-negative cocci, most likely organisms is:
A. Hemophilus
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Neisseria
481. CSF in meningococcal meningitis shows:
A. Gram-positive diplococci, in pus cells
B. Gram-negative diplococci, in pus cells
C. Gram-negative bacilli, in pus cells
D. Gram-positive bacilli, in pus cells
482. Regarding gas gangrene one of the following is correct:
A. It is due to Clostridium botulinum infection.
B. Clostridia are Gram-negative anaerobes
C. Clinical features are due to protein endotoxin
D. Gas is invariable present in muscle compartments
483. Which of the following cause/s of Gas gangrene?
A. Clostridium novyi
B. Clostridium septicum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. All of the above
484. Necrotizing gastrointestinal enteritis is caused by?
A. Clostridium difficile
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium botulinum
485. Nagler’s reaction is shown by:
A. Clostridium septicum
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium tetani
486. A 10-year old boy following a road traffic accident presents to the causality with contaminated wound over the left leg. He has received his complete primary immunization before preschool age and received a booster of DT at school entry age. All of the following can be done EXCEPT:
A. Injection of tetanus toxoid
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Wound debridement and cleaning
D. Injection of human antiserum
487. What types of viruses contain the enzyme lysozyme to aid in their infection?
A. Bacteriophage
B. Animal viruses
C. Plant viruses
D. Human viruses
488. All are correct regarding Cl. tetani, EXCEPT:
A. Soil & intestine of human / animals are reservoirs
B. Predominantly seen in dry and winter season
C. Transmission through contaminated wounds
D. No heard immunity is seen
489. Viruses that can remain latent (usually in neurons) for many years are most likely:
A. Togaviruses
B. Herpesviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Rhinoviruses
490. The most effective way of preventing tetanus is:
A. Surgical debridement and toilet
B. hyperbaric oxygen
C. Antibiotics
D. Tetanus toxoid
491. An 18-year old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. Both pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Botulism
C. Diphtheria
D. Porphyria
492. A patient of acute lymphocytic leukemia with fever and neutropenia develops diarrhea after amoxicillin therapy, which of the following organism is most likely to be the causative agent?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Shigella flexneri
493. Swarming growth on culture is characteristic of which Gram-negative organism:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Proteus mirabilis
494. Viruses range in size from
A. 1-100 nm
B. 25-300 nm
C. 10-100 μm
D. 400-1000 nm
495. Structural component that is found in all viruses is:
A. The envelope
B. DNA
C. Capsid
D. Spikes
496. Chemical component that is found in all viruses is:
A. Protein
B. Lipid
C. DNA
D. RNA
497. A common polyhedral capsid shape of viruses is a:
A. Pentagon
B. Cube
C. Icosahedron
D. Pyramid
498. Which of the following is the cause of smallpox?
A. Varicella zoster
B. Variola virus
C. Vaccinia virus
D. Cowpox virus
499. The following are cell culture types EXCEPT:
A. Semi-continuous
B. Primary
C. Continuous
D. Hemagglutination
500. Enteroviruses differ from rhinoviruses mainly by:
A. Type of nucleic acid
B. Size
C. Capsid shape
D. Ability to survive in acidic conditions
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