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601. 20 grams of food sample are mixed with 180 ml of water. What will be the dilution?
A. 10-2
B. 10-1
C. 10-3
D. 10-4
602. Which were the scientist lived at the same time?
A. Koch and Pasteur
B. Darwin and Woese
C. Van Leeuenhoek and Ricketts
D. Berg and Hooke
603. The feature of the archaea that distinguishes them from the bacteria is:
A. Habitats which are extreme environments
B. Absence of a nuclear membrane
C. Presence of a cell wall
D. Cytoplasmic ribosomes that are 70S
604. Gram staining was introduced by:
A. Christian Gram
B. Alfred Gram
C. Robert Cooke
D. Louis Pasteur
605. Which of the following is considered the most unifying concept in biology?
A. Taxonomy
B. Anatomy
C. Genetics
D. Evolution
606. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into:
A. Subspecies
B. Bio-varieties
C. Sero-varieties
D. All of these
607. A characteristic of protein synthesis in both the archaea and eukarya is:
A. Transcription and translation are coupled
B. Translation is inhibited by diphtheria toxin
C. Proteins are synthesized from D-, rather than L-, isomers of amino acids
D. The initiator tRNA is charged with N-formylmethionine
608. All of the following are features of prokaryotes EXCEPT:
A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Locomotion
609. The virulence of _____ is linked to its cell wall, an exotoxin (PLD) and a protective antigen (CP40).
A. Mycobacterium
B. Campylobacter
C. Brucella
D. Corynebacterium
610. E. coli O157:H7 is an example of:
A. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
B. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
C. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
D. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
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611. Genetic and biochemical similarities between contemporary cyanobacteria and eukaryotic chloroplasts are accepted to mean that:
A. Eukaryotes evolved from bacteria
B. Eukaryotes evolved from archaea
C. Oxygenic photosynthesis first evolved in eukaryotes
D. Cyanobacteria arose from chloroplasts which escaped from plant cells
612. Staph. aureus differs from S. epidermidis by:
A. Is coagulase positive
B. Forms white colonies
C. A common cause of UTI
D. Causes endocarditis of prosthetic valve
613. A cook prepares snacks from 10 people going for a picnic. 08 out of them develop severe gastroenteritis within 4-6 hours of consumption of snacks. It is likely that on investigations cook is found to be carrier of:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. E. coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
614. Ahmad comes from dinner, he complained about diarrhea, vomiting after 4 hours of meal. Most likely causative agent:
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. E. coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
615. _______ is capsulated and shows positive Negler’s reaction due to presence of α-toxin.
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
616. Giemsa-stained blood smear with bipolar-staining pathogens indicates involvement of:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Brucella abortus
D. Mycobacterium bovis
617. Primary differences between cilia and flagella are:
A. Arrangement of microtubules
B. Length and location of basal bodies
C. Number, length and direction of force
D. How the microtubules are fused to each other?
618. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______?
A. Capsule
B. Endotoxin
C. Exotoxin
D. Coagulase
619. Causative agent of lockjaw disease is hemolytic on blood agar due to the production of __________.
A. tetanolysin
B. tetanospasmin
C. endotoxin
D. beta-hemolysin
620. Which of the following is opportunistic pathogen?
A. Salmonella Typhimurium
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Yersinia pestis
621. If result of TSI test show, Red/Yellow with bubbles and black precipitate, what is your interpretation?
A. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
B. Lactose fermentation with gas and H2S production
C. Glucose fermentation with gas and H2S production
D. Glucose fermentation and H2S production
622. Which one of these is extremely resistant to antibiotics and disinfectants?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Salmonella Typhimurium
623. Which one of these is NOT correct about B. mallei?
A. B. mallei can grow at 42oC
B. B. mallei is non-motile
C. B. mallei is non-hemolytic
D. B. mallei can ferment glucose
624. B. mallei is classified as Category B bioterrorist agent because:
A. It causes chronic disease in equines
B. It presents as nasal, and cutaneous forms
C. Disease leads to formation of nodules on the skin
D. Infection by inhalation requires small number of pathogens
625. Infection with _________ can lead to abortion in pregnant women & can be life-threatening in neonates, elderly and immunocompromised patients.
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Mycoplasma mycoides
626. Lumpy jaw disease with yellowish ‘sulfur granules’ is caused by:
A. Actinomyces bovis
B. Borrelia anserina
C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
D. Mycoplasma bovis
627. Which of the followings is NOT a predisposing factor for enterotoxaemia in elder sheep?
A. Incomplete establishment of normal microbiota
B. Abrupt change to a rich diet
C. Gorging on energy-rich diet
D. Intestinal hypomotility
628. ______ is used to determine glucose fermentation.
A. Voges Proskauer test
B. TSI test
C. Catalase test
D. Coagulase test
629. Zoonotic cases of TB are usually associated with?
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium avium
D. Mycobacterium caprae
630. Causative agent of bovine reproductive disease is?
A. Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus
B. Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis
C. Campylobacter coli
D. Campylobacter jejuni
631. All are correct for anthrax bacilli EXCEPT?
A. They produce endotoxin.
B. They are spore forming.
C. They have polypeptide capsule.
D. They produce non-hemolytic colonies.
632. Shiga toxin is a form of?
A. Exotoxin
B. Endotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin
633. Which of the following drug is NOT used to treat dermatophytosis (fungal disease) in cats and dogs?
A. Itraconazole
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Fluconazole
D. Terbinafine
634. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of all members of Enterobacteriaceae?
A. Motile
B. Gram-negative
C. Catalase positive
D. Facultative anaerobes
635. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted by:
A. Ixodes
B. Aedes
C. Anapholes
D. Argus
636. Addition of glycerol in the culture medium enhances the growth of:
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Both ‘A’ & ‘B’
637. Which causes food INTOXICATION?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Salmonella Typhimurium
638. Colonies of __________ give egg-fried appearance.
A. Klebsiella pneumoniae
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Mycoplasma bovis
639. Fowl typhoid is caused by:
A. Salmonella Typhimurium
B. Salmonella Pullorum
C. Salmonella Gallinarum
D. Salmonella Enteritidis
640. _____ is a property of Listeria monocytogenes
A. It is an extracellular pathogen
B. It can grow at refrigerator temperatures (4°C)
C. It is non-motile
D. After Gram-staining, it exhibits G+ large bacilli
641. Dermatophytosis in human is caused by __________ contracted from infected cats.
A. Microsporum capri
B. Trychophyton canis
C. Microsporum canis
D. Epidermyphyton canis
642. Which of the following is NOT a SEROLOGICAL test used for diagnosis of bovine brucellosis?
A. Rose-Bengal plate test
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Brucella milk ring test
D. Complement fixation test
643. Wooden tongue or timber tongue with history of grazing rough pasture indicates the infection by:
A. Borrelia anserina
B. Actinomyces bovis
C. Actinobacillus lignieresii
D. Mycoplasma bovis
644. Fungi can cause disease by:
A. Tissue invasion
B. Toxin production
C. Induction of hypersensitivity
D. All of these
645. Virulence factor/s of C. neoformans include?
A. Capsule
B. Ability to grow at mammalian body temp.
C. Production of phenol oxidase
D. All of these
646. All are bounded by a cell wall EXCEPT?
A. Actinomyces bovis
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Mycoplasma bovis
D. Borrelia anserina
647. Gas gangrene causing bacillus is:
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Microaerophilic
C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Obligate aerobe
648. Leptospira is transmitted (animal to human) by?
A. Animal scratch
B. Contact with urine from infected animal
C. Animal bite
D. Arthropod vector
649. Zearalenone (mycotoxin) is produced by:
A. Aspergillus species
B. Fusarium species
C. Penicillium species
D. Claviceps species
650. Example of anaerobic medium is
A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
B. Sabouraud dextrose agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Mannitol salt agar
651. MacConkey agar is an example of?
A. General purpose medium
B. Enrichment medium
C. Differential medium
D. Enriched medium
652. Which of the following is the most commonly affected non-pulmonary site by Mycoplasma?
A. Meningitis
B. Prosthetic heart valve
C. Septic arthritis
D. Urethritis
653. Which of the following is the current preferred antimicrobial treatment of cutaneous anthrax?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Penicillin
D. Tetracycline
654. Bacillus anthracis is unique to other bacteria. It is the only bacteria to possess which of the following?
A. An endotoxin
B. A polypeptide capsule
C. A polysaccharide capsule
D. Teichoic acid in its outer cell wall
655. Which of the following diseases could also be transmitted by ticks?
A. Q fever
B. Leptospirosis
C. Ehrlichiosis
D. Yellow fever
656. Which of the following are the special laboratory conditions needed to recover C. jejuni?
A. 98.6 oF (37 oC) aerobic blood agar plates
B. 98.6 oF (37 oC) anaerobic blood agar plates
C. 107.6 oF (42 oC) microaerophilic Skirrow medium
D. 107.6 oF (42 oC) anaerobic Skirrow medium
657. Testing of blood culture revealed Gram-positive cocci, vancomycin-resistant, PYR-positive and the presence of Lancefield group D antigen. Which of the following is the most likely isolate identification?
A. Enterococcus faecalis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
658. Verotoxin producing E. coli O157:H7 serotype belongs to which group?
A. Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC)
B. Enterhemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
C. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
D. Enterotocigenic E. coli (ETEC)
659. Which of the following is a key typical characteristic of H. pylori as compared to Campylobacter species?
A. Coagulase production
B. Catalase production
C. Urease production
D. Curved shape
660. A 4-year-old has fever and diarrhea. Blood culture grows a Gram-negative rod. This is most likely to be which of the following?
A. Group B Streptococcus
B. Listeria species
C. Salmonella species
D. Neisseria species
661. The O antigen used to help characterize members of Enterobacteriaceae are found on:
A. Capsules
B. Endotoxins
C. Exotoxins
D. Flagella
662. The most frequent source of L. monocytogenes infection is through which of the following?
A. Human feces
B. Soil
C. Raw milk
D. Ticks
663. The ability of the Neisseria meningitidis to colonize the respiratory mucosa is associated with its ability to synthesize:
A. Coagulase
B. Collagenase
C. Lipases
D. Pilli
664. UTI as a result of Proteus mirabilis facilitates the formation of kidney stones because the organism does which of the following?
A. Destroys blood vessels in the kidney
B. Exhibits ‘swarming’ motility
C. Ferments many sugars
D. Produces a potent urease
665. A woman is noted to have pyelonephritis with shaking chills and fever. Blood cultures are obtained and the Gram-negative is read preliminary as consistent with Proteus species. Which of the following bacteria also may be the etiology?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Group B Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
666. A man is diagnosed with meningitis. CSF grows out Gram-positive diplococci. This is most likely to be:
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
667. Which of the following viral families is known to be causally associated with tumor formation?
A. Flavivirus
B. Papovavirus
C. Paramyxovirus
D. Polyoma virus
668. In which of the following sites is Salmonella typhi most likely to be found during the carrier state?
A. Blood
B. Gallbladder
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
669. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Halophilic – Salmonella typhi
B. Severe dehydration – Vibrio choleae
C. Multi-drug resistance – Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Coagulase positive – Staphylococcus aureus
670. A 12-hour-old newborn has a temperature of 103oF. Blood culture grows Gram-positive cocci in chains. This is most likely to be:
A. Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes)
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
671. _________ is primary factor of S. pneumoniae?
A. Pilli
B. Polypeptide capsule
C. Polysaccharide capsule
D. Coagulase
672. Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Coagulase
B. Enterotoxin
C. Protein A
D. M protein
673. Short incubation food poisoning caused by ingestion of preformed enterotoxin, is caused by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
674. A nurse experienced a needle stick injury. The patient used illicit intravenous drugs. One month later, nurse develops jaundice. Which of following findings would implicate hepatitis B as the etiology?
A. Positive anti-hepatitis B surface antibody
B. Positive anti-hepatitis B-core antibody
C. Positive hepatitis B surface antigen
D. Positive anti-hepatitis A antibody
675. A man tests positive for HCV infection. Which of following is the most likely method of transmission?
A. Fecal-oral
B. Fomite
C. Intravenous drug (needles)
D. Sexual transmission
676. In an HIV-1 patient, which of following is the most predictive of the patient’s prognosis?
A. Degree of lymphadenopathy
B. CD4+:CD8+ cell ratio
C. Level of HIV-1 RNA in plasma
D. Rate of decline in anti-HIV antibody
677. Which of the following is the pathogen responsible for blindness in advanced HIV infection?
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Candida albicans
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
678. A seconds-year MPhil student is researching the role of HPV in causing cancer. Which of the following types of cancer is HPV most commonly associated with?
A. Anogenital
B. Breast
C. Lung
D. Prostate
679. The primary pathologic effect of polio viral infection is a result of which of the following?
A. Destruction of infected cells
B. Persistent viremia
C. Immune complex formation
D. Aseptic meningitis
680. Which of the following statements best describes an advantage of the oral polio vaccine when compared to inactivated polio vaccine?
A. It can be given to immunocompromised patients.
B. It is not associated with vaccine-related cases of poliomyelitis.
C. It induces local intestinal immunity.
D. It is easily administered as a series of multiple injections.
681. Which of the following paramyxoviruses lacks an envelope viral attachment protein with HA activity?
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Mumps virus
C. Measles virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
682. Escherichia coli differs from Klebsiella by:
A. Gram- negative
B. Motile
C. Non- sporogenous
D. Non lactose fermenting
683. Which of the following morphological structures is not associated with Candida albicans?
A. Yeast
B. Hyphae
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Sporangium
684. A definitive diagnosis of ascariasis can be made by observing which of the following?
A. An eosinophilia in a differential WBC count
B. Motile larvae in a stool sample
C. Larvae in radiography of lungs
D. An adult worm passed during a bowl movement
685. An examination of sputum for a suspected case of fungal infection may reveal hyphae in which?
A. Aspergillosis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Paracoccidioidomycosis
686. An immunocompromised woman is diagnosed as having meningitis. A latex agglutination test on the CSF for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive. Which of the following is the most likely the cause?
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Nocoradia asteroides
687. Ascariasis is most effectively treated with which of the following drugs?
A. Mebendazole
B. Metronidazole
C. Penicillin
D. Niclosamide
688. A woman has chronic diarrhea. Identification of which of the following stages of the organism would provide evidence for cryptosporidiosis?
A. Cyst
B. Oocyst
C. Merozoites
D. Egg
689. Which of the following is a host in the life cycle of all trematodes that infect humans?
A. Flea
B. Mosquito
C. Snail
D. Sand fly
690. If 35 colonies were counted on a 10-2 dilution plate inoculated with a loop calibrated to deliver 0.01 ml of urine, what will be the bacteria/ml in the urine?
A. 35,000
B. 350,000
C. 3,500
D. 350
691. What will be your result interpretation, if MPN results shows 0,1,3 after presumptive test?
A. Water is potable
B. Error in collecting water sample
C. Dilution of media is incorrect
D. Water is not polluted with E. coli
692. Ability to ferment ____ is used to detect coliforms?
A. Lactose
B. Glucose
C. Mannitol
D. Dextrose
693. Ames test general requires addition of ____ to make bacterial system comparable to mammalian system.
A. Liver homogenate
B. Kidney homogenate
C. Spleen homogenate
D. Blood homogenate
694. Acid fastness of tubercle bacilli is attributed to:
A. A. Presence of mycolic acid
B. Integrity of cell wall
C. Both of above
D. Cell Membrane
695. The majority of non-immunized patients infected with poliovirus would be expected to experience which of the following symptoms?
A. Flaccid paralysis of ≥1 extremities
B. Aseptic meningitis
C. Muscle spasms and pain
D. Asymptomatic infection
696. _____ protect pneumococci against phagocytosis.
A. Haemolysin
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Necrotizing toxin
D. Capsular polysaccharides
697. Routine sugar bacterial culture medium contain:
A. 2 % sugar
B. 0.5 -1 % sugar
C. 0.1 – 0.5 % sugar
D. <0.1 % sugar
698. Antigen becomes more potent because of:
A. Increased number of epitopes
B. Larger antigen determinants
C. Repetitive occurrence of antigenic determinants
D. None of the above
699. Fungus is cultured on:
A. Nutrient broth
B. Nutrient agar
C. MaConkey medium
D. Sabouraud agar
700. After overnight incubation, the lowest concentration of the drug that restricts the growth of bacterium inoculated is called:
A. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
B. Minimum bacterial concentration (MBC)
C. Lf dose
D. LD50
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