501. A boy with skin ulcer on leg, culture revealed β-hemolysis. School physician said that similar hemolysis was seen in organism from sore throat, what is the similarity between both pathogens?
A. Protein-A is same for both
B. C-carbohydrate antigen is different
C. C-carbohydrate antigen is the same ✅
D. Strain causing both are same
A. Protein-A is same for both
B. C-carbohydrate antigen is different
C. C-carbohydrate antigen is the same ✅
D. Strain causing both are same
502. A type of cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used to support viral replication is a:
A. Primary cell culture
B. Continuous cell line ✅
C. Secondary cell culture
D. Diploid fibroblast cell
A. Primary cell culture
B. Continuous cell line ✅
C. Secondary cell culture
D. Diploid fibroblast cell
503. Bacteriophage are readily counted by process of:
A. Immunoassays
B. ELISA
C. Tissue culture
D. Plaque assays ✅
A. Immunoassays
B. ELISA
C. Tissue culture
D. Plaque assays ✅
504. Non-motile clostridium is:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Clostridium botulinum ✅
D. Clostridium difficile
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium novyi
C. Clostridium botulinum ✅
D. Clostridium difficile
505. Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A. Retrovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Adenovirus ✅
A. Retrovirus
B. Enterovirus
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Adenovirus ✅
506. In name of family Reovirus, word ‘reo’ refers to:
A. Respiratory enteric orphans ✅
B. Respiratory
C. Enteric
D. Orphans
A. Respiratory enteric orphans ✅
B. Respiratory
C. Enteric
D. Orphans
507. Virus that is well known in causing ‘latent infection’ is:
A. Adenovirus
B. Hepatitis B Virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Herpesvirus ✅
A. Adenovirus
B. Hepatitis B Virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Herpesvirus ✅
508. Which one of the following statements is NOT true about viral infections?
A. Virus infections are all life threatening ✅
B. number of viruses cause similar symptoms
C. Virus infection may cause immunosuppression
D. Some viruses require other viruses for replication
A. Virus infections are all life threatening ✅
B. number of viruses cause similar symptoms
C. Virus infection may cause immunosuppression
D. Some viruses require other viruses for replication
509. Which one of following viruses is not oncogenic?
A. Adenoviruses
B. HSV-2
C. HCV
D. EBV ✅
A. Adenoviruses
B. HSV-2
C. HCV
D. EBV ✅
510. Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection is usually made by which of the following:
A. Biochemical tests
B. Growth of virus in chicken embryo
C. Detection of antigen and antibodies ✅
D. Light microscopy
A. Biochemical tests
B. Growth of virus in chicken embryo
C. Detection of antigen and antibodies ✅
D. Light microscopy
511. What is a primer?
A. A short DNA sequence
B. A short RNA sequence
C. A short sequence of oligonucleotide ✅
D. A promoter sequence
A. A short DNA sequence
B. A short RNA sequence
C. A short sequence of oligonucleotide ✅
D. A promoter sequence
512. Direct viral diagnostic techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Electron microscopy
B. Antibodies detection ✅
C. Light microscopy
D. Viral genome detection
A. Electron microscopy
B. Antibodies detection ✅
C. Light microscopy
D. Viral genome detection
513. The first step in all virus infection is:
A. Uncoating
B. Migration to nucleus
C. Attachment to cell receptor ✅
D. Transcription
A. Uncoating
B. Migration to nucleus
C. Attachment to cell receptor ✅
D. Transcription
514. The first step in virus replication after uncoating of the positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses is which of the following?
A. Transcription
B. Translation ✅
C. Genome replication
D. Assembly
A. Transcription
B. Translation ✅
C. Genome replication
D. Assembly
515. Rubella has the most serious consequences in:
A. Children
B. Pregnant Women ✅
C. Summer months
D. Years with heavy rainfall
A. Children
B. Pregnant Women ✅
C. Summer months
D. Years with heavy rainfall
516. Immunopathology (immune-mediated disease) may be involved with a severe form of which of the following Flavivirus infections?
A. Yellow fever
B. West Nile
C. Hepatitis C
D. Dengue fever ✅
A. Yellow fever
B. West Nile
C. Hepatitis C
D. Dengue fever ✅
517. Infectious bursal disease of chickens leads to loss of which of the following cell types?
A. Thymic cells
B. B-lymphocytes ✅
C. Neurons
D. Neutrophils
A. Thymic cells
B. B-lymphocytes ✅
C. Neurons
D. Neutrophils
518. Deltavirus infection is always associated with coinfection with:
A. Hepatitis C
B. Dengue fever
C. Hepatitis B ✅
D. Influenza
A. Hepatitis C
B. Dengue fever
C. Hepatitis B ✅
D. Influenza
519. Hemagglutination inhibition assay is used for detection of________ in the sample.
A. Antigen titer
B. Virus titer
C. Antibody titer ✅
D. 4HA titer
A. Antigen titer
B. Virus titer
C. Antibody titer ✅
D. 4HA titer
520. Rabies virus reaches brain and salivary glands via:
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. SQ tissue
D. Nerves ✅
A. Blood
B. Lymph
C. SQ tissue
D. Nerves ✅
521. An important paramyxovirus of poultry is:
A. Infectious bursal disease virus
B. Newcastle disease virus ✅
C. Avian influenza virus
D. Avian leukosis virus
A. Infectious bursal disease virus
B. Newcastle disease virus ✅
C. Avian influenza virus
D. Avian leukosis virus
522. The surface receptor for HIV is ____on ____ cells.
A. MHC, macrophage
B. CD8, T helper
C. CD4, T helper ✅
D. CD4, cytotoxic T
A. MHC, macrophage
B. CD8, T helper
C. CD4, T helper ✅
D. CD4, cytotoxic T
523. For cultivation of FMD virus, foot pad of ________ (lab animal) is commonly used.
A. Mouse
B. Chicken
C. Guinea pig
D. Hamster ✅
A. Mouse
B. Chicken
C. Guinea pig
D. Hamster ✅
524. NDV is cultivated via _____ in embryonated Eggs.
A. Allantoic inoculation ✅
B. Yolk sac inoculation
C. Intra-cerebral inoculation
D. Chorioallantoic membrane inoculation
A. Allantoic inoculation ✅
B. Yolk sac inoculation
C. Intra-cerebral inoculation
D. Chorioallantoic membrane inoculation
525. Viral diagnostic techniques include all EXCEPT:
A. Electron microscopy
B. Antigen detection
C. Antibodies detection
D. Light microscopy ✅
A. Electron microscopy
B. Antigen detection
C. Antibodies detection
D. Light microscopy ✅
526. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
A. Eukaryotic
B. Bacterial
C. Parasitic
D. Both “A” and “B” ✅
A. Eukaryotic
B. Bacterial
C. Parasitic
D. Both “A” and “B” ✅
527. Calculate 4HA units from the following HA results.
A. 128
B. 64 ✅
C. 32
D. 16
A. 128
B. 64 ✅
C. 32
D. 16
528. Diagnosis of rabies is commonly done by _______.
A. Direct Sandwich ELISA
B. Florescent Antibody Technique ✅
C. Hemagglutination assay
D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
A. Direct Sandwich ELISA
B. Florescent Antibody Technique ✅
C. Hemagglutination assay
D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay
529. In _____ vaccine, genetic material from a pathogen is inserted into a live carrier non-pathogen.
A. Subunit
B. Acellular
C. Trojan horse ✅
D. Live attenuated
A. Subunit
B. Acellular
C. Trojan horse ✅
D. Live attenuated
530. 1% or 0.8% dilution of washed RBCs is prepared for use in HA assays by diluting washed RBCs in___.
A. Distilled H2O
B. Double distilled H2O
C. Double distilled deionized H2O ✅
D. Normal Saline
A. Distilled H2O
B. Double distilled H2O
C. Double distilled deionized H2O ✅
D. Normal Saline
531. Calculate antigen titer from following HA results.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16 ✅
D. 32
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16 ✅
D. 32
532. Cell culture that can reproduce for an extended number of generations and is used to support viral replication is:
A. Primary cell culture
B. Secondary cell culture
C. Continuous cell culture ✅
D. Diploid fibroblast cell culture
A. Primary cell culture
B. Secondary cell culture
C. Continuous cell culture ✅
D. Diploid fibroblast cell culture
533. Calculate antibody titer from following HI results.
A. 1024 ✅
B. 512
C. 256
D. 128
A. 1024 ✅
B. 512
C. 256
D. 128
534. Cells that use antibodies to recognize their targets:
A. CD4+ T cells
B. CD8+ T cells
C. Macrophages
D. B lymphocytes ✅
A. CD4+ T cells
B. CD8+ T cells
C. Macrophages
D. B lymphocytes ✅
535. B-lymphocytes bind and respond to:
A. Soluble antigens ✅
B. Virus-infected host cell
C. Bacteria
D. Particulate matter
A. Soluble antigens ✅
B. Virus-infected host cell
C. Bacteria
D. Particulate matter
536. ______ complement pathway/s will activate first.
A. Classical
B. Alternative ✅
C. Lectin
D. All act simultaneously.
A. Classical
B. Alternative ✅
C. Lectin
D. All act simultaneously.
537. Sample of choice in Marek’s disease is _______.
A. Liver tissue
B. Feather follicle ✅
C. Pieces of lymph node
D. Bursa of fabricius
A. Liver tissue
B. Feather follicle ✅
C. Pieces of lymph node
D. Bursa of fabricius
538. In AGPT, precipitation band will appear if:
A. Antigen antibody reaction is specific
B. Antigen is soluble
C. Conc. of antigen and antibody are optimum
D. All of the above ✅
A. Antigen antibody reaction is specific
B. Antigen is soluble
C. Conc. of antigen and antibody are optimum
D. All of the above ✅
539. If LD50 is 10-5.6 using 100μl of sample, then what will be the virus titer.
A. 10-4.6
B. 10-5.6
C. 106.6
D. 10-6.6 ✅
A. 10-4.6
B. 10-5.6
C. 106.6
D. 10-6.6 ✅
540. Which one of following is CORRECT about T-cell?
A. Has both MHC-I and MHC-II molecules.
B. Can kill infected host cells. ✅
C. Does not require antigen processing/presentation
D. Differentiate into plasma cells
A. Has both MHC-I and MHC-II molecules.
B. Can kill infected host cells. ✅
C. Does not require antigen processing/presentation
D. Differentiate into plasma cells
541. Stick method of virus inoculation is used for:
A. Newcastle disease virus
B. Fowl pox virus ✅
C. FMD virus
D. Avian influenza virus
A. Newcastle disease virus
B. Fowl pox virus ✅
C. FMD virus
D. Avian influenza virus
542. A T-cell that has the CD8+ marker can be a:
A. Cytotoxic T cell ✅
B. Natural Killer T cell
C. Helper T cell
D. T Regulatory cell
A. Cytotoxic T cell ✅
B. Natural Killer T cell
C. Helper T cell
D. T Regulatory cell
543. Regarding MHC-I, which statement is FALSE?
A. Ag. presented by MHC-I is recognized by CTL.
B. It typically processes antigens exogenously. ✅
C. Peptide binding cleft is formed by α 1/α2.
D. It is present on all nucleated host cells.
A. Ag. presented by MHC-I is recognized by CTL.
B. It typically processes antigens exogenously. ✅
C. Peptide binding cleft is formed by α 1/α2.
D. It is present on all nucleated host cells.
544. Treatment with ______________ is required for isolation of viruses from tissues; it precipitates __________ present in the sample.
A. Formalin, lipids
B. Chloroform, lipids ✅
C. Chloroform, proteins
D. Formalin, proteins
A. Formalin, lipids
B. Chloroform, lipids ✅
C. Chloroform, proteins
D. Formalin, proteins
545. ______ is an example of suspension cell line?
A. Vero cell line (Monkey Kidney cells)
B. Hela cell line (Human Cervix cells)
C. HEK 293 cell line (Human kidney cells)
D. YAC-1 cell line (Mouse Lymphoma cells) ✅
A. Vero cell line (Monkey Kidney cells)
B. Hela cell line (Human Cervix cells)
C. HEK 293 cell line (Human kidney cells)
D. YAC-1 cell line (Mouse Lymphoma cells) ✅
546. Which one of the following is NOT the desired property for enzyme in ELISA?
A. High turnover rate
B. Readily coupled to proteins
C. Resistant to high salt concentration
D. Cheap ✅
A. High turnover rate
B. Readily coupled to proteins
C. Resistant to high salt concentration
D. Cheap ✅
547. Light chain DOES NOT originate from ____region.
A. Variable
B. Joining
C. Diversity
D. Constant ✅
A. Variable
B. Joining
C. Diversity
D. Constant ✅
548. With respect to lymphocyte antigen receptors, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. The pool of lymphocytes can express several million different antigen receptors.
B. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand antigen receptors.
C. A single lymphocyte can only recognize a single antigenic epitope. ✅
D. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand different antigen receptors.
A. The pool of lymphocytes can express several million different antigen receptors.
B. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand antigen receptors.
C. A single lymphocyte can only recognize a single antigenic epitope. ✅
D. A single lymphocyte can express several thousand different antigen receptors.
549. Autoclave standards for decontamination of most microbiological materials is:
A. 100oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
B. 121oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes ✅
C. 100oC at 10 psi for 60 minutes
D. 121oC at 15 psi for 60 minutes
A. 100oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes
B. 121oC at 15 psi for 10 minutes ✅
C. 100oC at 10 psi for 60 minutes
D. 121oC at 15 psi for 60 minutes
550. Which is true for immunogenicity & antigenicity?
A. An antigenic particle is always immunogenic, but the reverse is not true.
B. The terms are synonymous.
C. A particle that is immunogenic will trigger an adaptive immune response. ✅
D. A particle that is antigenic will trigger an adaptive immune response.
A. An antigenic particle is always immunogenic, but the reverse is not true.
B. The terms are synonymous.
C. A particle that is immunogenic will trigger an adaptive immune response. ✅
D. A particle that is antigenic will trigger an adaptive immune response.
551. Which one of the followings is INCORECT for live vaccine?
A. Require larger dose / more boosters
B. Require special storage (cold chain)
C. Can conceivably mutate back to virulent stain
D. Confer long-lasting protection ✅
A. Require larger dose / more boosters
B. Require special storage (cold chain)
C. Can conceivably mutate back to virulent stain
D. Confer long-lasting protection ✅
552. Acquired immunity is produced by:
A. Both B and T lymphocytes ✅
B. Only T lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils, dendritic cells and macrophages
D. Only B lymphocytes
A. Both B and T lymphocytes ✅
B. Only T lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils, dendritic cells and macrophages
D. Only B lymphocytes
553. ______ provokes an overwhelming T-cell response.
A. Autoantigen
B. Autoantigen
C. Allergen
D. Superantigen ✅
A. Autoantigen
B. Autoantigen
C. Allergen
D. Superantigen ✅
554. Indirect protection of unimmunized animals is___.
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Herd immunity ✅
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Natural active immunity
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Herd immunity ✅
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Natural active immunity
555. Which of the following statements regarding clonal selection theory is INCORRECR?
A. Specificity for Ag of T cells produced is identical to the specificity of the TCR on initial T cell.
B. The body is equipped with billions of lymphocytes. Each is devoted to respond to one specific epitope.
C. An epitope triggers the production of a number of lymphocytes, each with different receptors. ✅
D. Antigen binding to a TCR triggers proliferation and differentiation of T cells into effector cells.
A. Specificity for Ag of T cells produced is identical to the specificity of the TCR on initial T cell.
B. The body is equipped with billions of lymphocytes. Each is devoted to respond to one specific epitope.
C. An epitope triggers the production of a number of lymphocytes, each with different receptors. ✅
D. Antigen binding to a TCR triggers proliferation and differentiation of T cells into effector cells.
556. Which one of the following property is NOT required for vaccine?
A. Should protect against natural exposure
B. Should be cheaper.
C. Should have relatively longer shelf life.
D. Should be less immunogenic ✅
A. Should protect against natural exposure
B. Should be cheaper.
C. Should have relatively longer shelf life.
D. Should be less immunogenic ✅
557. In a host, virus-infected host cells are killed by:
A. Activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes ✅
B. Activated B lymphocytes
C. Activated T helper cells
D. Monoclonal antibodies
A. Activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes ✅
B. Activated B lymphocytes
C. Activated T helper cells
D. Monoclonal antibodies
558. The Petroff-Hausser chamber is used for ______.
A. Incubation of culture medium
B. Direct microscopic count ✅
C. Viable count
D. To grow anaerobic bacteria
A. Incubation of culture medium
B. Direct microscopic count ✅
C. Viable count
D. To grow anaerobic bacteria
559. Toxoid injection to protect future tetanus infection is an example of:
A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity ✅
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
A. Natural passive immunity
B. Artificial active immunity ✅
C. Natural active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
560. ______has the ability induce a malignant tumor.
A. Toxic
B. Carcinogenic ✅
C. Corrosive
D. Ignitable
A. Toxic
B. Carcinogenic ✅
C. Corrosive
D. Ignitable
561. Secretory component that facilitate to move across the mucus membrane is present in:
A. Ig M
B. Ig G
C. Ig A ✅
D. Ig E
A. Ig M
B. Ig G
C. Ig A ✅
D. Ig E
562. Biosafety level that includes most common laboratory microorganisms & involves organisms such as HBV, Staphylococcus & enteric pathogen is:
A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2 ✅
C. BSL 3
D. BSL4
A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2 ✅
C. BSL 3
D. BSL4
563. Which of the following open biological safety cabinets sterilize both the air entering and leaving the cabinet and utilizes a HEPA filter?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III ✅
D. Class IV
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III ✅
D. Class IV
564. Which of the following hazardous chemicals causes serious biological effects following inhalation, ingestion or skin contact with even small amounts?
A. Corrosive
B. Toxic ✅
C. Carcinogenic
D. Ignitable
A. Corrosive
B. Toxic ✅
C. Carcinogenic
D. Ignitable
565. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface are used for:
A. Cellular activity
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Adherence to surfaces ✅
D. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
A. Cellular activity
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Adherence to surfaces ✅
D. Adherence and exchange of genetic information
566. An infection that may occur as a result of accidental needle sticks or through broken glass is classified as which of the following routes?
A. Direct inoculation ✅
B. Airborne
C. Ingestion
D. Mucous membrane contact
A. Direct inoculation ✅
B. Airborne
C. Ingestion
D. Mucous membrane contact
567. What is the total magnification if the eyepiece is 10X and the objective lens is 40X?
A. 40 times bigger
B. 4 times bigger
C. 14 times bigger
D. 400 times bigger ✅
A. 40 times bigger
B. 4 times bigger
C. 14 times bigger
D. 400 times bigger ✅
568. _________ is intended to destroy all microorganism and their spores on inanimate surfaces?
A. Disinfectant
B. Sterilizer ✅
C. Antiseptic
D. Antibiotic
A. Disinfectant
B. Sterilizer ✅
C. Antiseptic
D. Antibiotic
569. What part of the microscope is used to change the amount of light entering the stage?
A. Eyepiece
B. Nosepiece
C. Diaphragm ✅
D. Coarse adjustment knob
A. Eyepiece
B. Nosepiece
C. Diaphragm ✅
D. Coarse adjustment knob
570. _______ is used for microorganism that have no known pathogenic potential like Bacillus subtilis.
A. BSL-I ✅
B. BSL-II
C. BSL-III
D. BSL-IV
A. BSL-I ✅
B. BSL-II
C. BSL-III
D. BSL-IV
571. Membrane filtration method has all the following advantages EXCEPT:
A. More turbid samples can be processed easily.
B. Results are available in a shorter period of time.
C. Larger volumes of sample can be processed.
D. The results are readily reproducible. ✅
A. More turbid samples can be processed easily.
B. Results are available in a shorter period of time.
C. Larger volumes of sample can be processed.
D. The results are readily reproducible. ✅
572. _______ is used as chemical germicide used on skin.
A. Disinfectant
B. Antiseptic ✅
C. Sterilizer
D. Moist heat
A. Disinfectant
B. Antiseptic ✅
C. Sterilizer
D. Moist heat
573. _______ causes visible destruction or irreversible damage to human skin on contact.
A. Toxic
B. Carcinogenic
C. Explosive
D. Corrosive ✅
A. Toxic
B. Carcinogenic
C. Explosive
D. Corrosive ✅
574. Any chemical that can burn and includes both combustible and flammable liquids is called _____.
A. Corrosive
B. Toxic
C. Ignitable ✅
D. Explosive
A. Corrosive
B. Toxic
C. Ignitable ✅
D. Explosive
575. ______ are reactive and unstable substances that readily undergo violent chemical changes.
A. Toxic
B. Corrosive
C. Explosive ✅
D. Ignitable
A. Toxic
B. Corrosive
C. Explosive ✅
D. Ignitable
576. What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet in a microbiology laboratory?
A. To sterilize materials, such as media and glassware
B. To provide a proper temp. for microbes to grow
C. To prevent sample from contamination ✅
D. For long term storage of microbes at low temp.
A. To sterilize materials, such as media and glassware
B. To provide a proper temp. for microbes to grow
C. To prevent sample from contamination ✅
D. For long term storage of microbes at low temp.
577. What lab equipment is used to accurately measure the volume of liquids?
A. Balance
B. Erlenmeyer flask
C. Ruler
D. Graduated cylinder ✅
A. Balance
B. Erlenmeyer flask
C. Ruler
D. Graduated cylinder ✅
578. What lab equipment is used to measure the amount of matter in an object?
A. Balance ✅
B. Graduated cylinder
C. Thermometer
D. Autoclave
A. Balance ✅
B. Graduated cylinder
C. Thermometer
D. Autoclave
579. ____ is used to culture microbes at a specific temp.
A. Incubator ✅
B. Autoclave
C. Hot air oven
D. Desiccator
A. Incubator ✅
B. Autoclave
C. Hot air oven
D. Desiccator
580. ____ is an example of indicator coliform bacterial species used to check quality of drinking water.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli ✅
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli ✅
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
581. ____ contains many different species in a sample.
A. Broth culture
B. Pure culture
C. Mixed culture ✅
D. Streak plate culture
A. Broth culture
B. Pure culture
C. Mixed culture ✅
D. Streak plate culture
582. ______ culture medium is supplemented with highly nutritious material such as serum.
A. Differential medium
B. General purpose medium
C. Enrichment medium ✅
D. Enriched medium
A. Differential medium
B. General purpose medium
C. Enrichment medium ✅
D. Enriched medium
583. Crystal violet agar is an example of _______.
A. General purpose medium
B. Enriched medium
C. Selective medium ✅
D. Differential medium
A. General purpose medium
B. Enriched medium
C. Selective medium ✅
D. Differential medium
584. In microbiology lab, mouth pipetting is done for:
A. Dispensing liquid culture medium
B. Dispensing water to wash glass slide
C. To transfer bacterial culture to fresh medium
D. Strictly prohibited for any use ✅
A. Dispensing liquid culture medium
B. Dispensing water to wash glass slide
C. To transfer bacterial culture to fresh medium
D. Strictly prohibited for any use ✅
585. The temperature at which the rate of reproduction is most rapid is known as ___________.
A. Optimum growth temperature ✅
B. Minimum growth temperature
C. Maximum growth temperature
D. None of the above
A. Optimum growth temperature ✅
B. Minimum growth temperature
C. Maximum growth temperature
D. None of the above
586. What will be CFU/ml if colonies per plate = 75, Dilution = 10-7 and volume added per plate 0.5ml.
A. 1.5 x 107
B. 1.5 x 109 ✅
C. 1.5 x 108
D. 7.5 x 109
A. 1.5 x 107
B. 1.5 x 109 ✅
C. 1.5 x 108
D. 7.5 x 109
587. Oldest eukaryotic organisms are considered to be:
A. Archaea
B. Diplomonads like Giardia ✅
C. Fungi
D. Animals
A. Archaea
B. Diplomonads like Giardia ✅
C. Fungi
D. Animals
588. MacConkey agar is an example of:
A. Enriched medium
B. Selective medium
C. Differential medium
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ ✅
A. Enriched medium
B. Selective medium
C. Differential medium
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ ✅
589. Petri dish/plate is commonly labeled:
A. On the bottom-side of plate ✅
B. On the top of plate
C. On the side of plate
D. On the inside of plate
A. On the bottom-side of plate ✅
B. On the top of plate
C. On the side of plate
D. On the inside of plate
590. Isolation of pure culture refers to ________.
A. Purification of culture
B. Separation of a single colony ✅
C. Introduction of inoculum
D. To grow microorganism on a surface
A. Purification of culture
B. Separation of a single colony ✅
C. Introduction of inoculum
D. To grow microorganism on a surface
591. Salmonella from fecal sample is isolated using:
A. Crowded-plate technique
B. Pour plate technique
C. Enrichment culture technique ✅
D. Gradient-plate technique
A. Crowded-plate technique
B. Pour plate technique
C. Enrichment culture technique ✅
D. Gradient-plate technique
592. _______is best used for long term storage of microbial samples when carried out properly?
A. storage in a freezer
B. storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant
C. storage on a petri plate at room temperature
D. storage in a freezer at ultra-low temperatures ✅
A. storage in a freezer
B. storage in a refrigerator on an agar slant
C. storage on a petri plate at room temperature
D. storage in a freezer at ultra-low temperatures ✅
593. Which of the following method is used for viable count of a culture?
A. Plate-count method
B. Membrane-filter count
C. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count ✅
D. Direct microscopic count
A. Plate-count method
B. Membrane-filter count
C. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count ✅
D. Direct microscopic count
594. Soil microbes serially degrade nitrogenous organic compounds derived from dead plants and animals to coverts them finally into NH3, the process is ____.
A. Denitrification
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Nitrification
D. Ammonification ✅
A. Denitrification
B. Nitrogen fixation
C. Nitrification
D. Ammonification ✅
595. The process of killing all microorganisms along with their spores is ________.
A. Sterilization ✅
B. Sanitization
C. Disinfection
D. Antisepsis
A. Sterilization ✅
B. Sanitization
C. Disinfection
D. Antisepsis
596. Antimicrobial activity of a NEW compound is checked against all the bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli ✅
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella typhimurium
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli ✅
597. ______ technique is used for isolation of antibiotic-producing microorganism from soil samples.
A. Enrichment culture ✅
B. Pour plate
C. Crowded-plate
D. Streak plate
A. Enrichment culture ✅
B. Pour plate
C. Crowded-plate
D. Streak plate
598. All of followings are the sugars used in Triple sugar iron test to check their fermentation EXCEPT:
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. Dextrose ✅
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. Dextrose ✅
599. Triple sugar iron test can be used for all EXCEPT:
A. To differentiate b/w fermentation of lactose and sucrose
B. To observe H2S production
C. To observe gas production from glucose fermentation
D. To differentiate b/w fermentation of glucose and lactose ✅
A. To differentiate b/w fermentation of lactose and sucrose
B. To observe H2S production
C. To observe gas production from glucose fermentation
D. To differentiate b/w fermentation of glucose and lactose ✅
600. Which of the following may account for the small size of the cells?
A. The rate of diffusion
B. The surface area/volume ratio
C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the nucleus
D. All of the above ✅
A. The rate of diffusion
B. The surface area/volume ratio
C. The number of mRNAs that can be produced by the nucleus
D. All of the above ✅
