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1801. Which one of the following statements is WRONG regarding properties of viruses?
A. Viruses can replicate in non-living media ✅
B. Viruses need live cells to grow
C. Viruses have no ribosome
D. Contain either RNA or DNA
1802. Which of the following virus is not belongs to the Picornaviridae?
A. Coxsackievirus group A
B. Rhinoviruses
C. Poliovirus
D. Rabies virus ✅
1803. The most pathogenic Brucella species for man is.
A. B. melitensis ✅
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. B. canis
1804. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Mycoplasmas ✅
C. Bacillus
D. Spirochetes
1805. Which of the following gram-positive bacteria causes pharyngitis (sore throat)?
A. Neisseria
B. Streptococcus ✅
C. Staphylococcus
D. Mycobacterium
1806. The organisms that can be acid-fast stained is:
A. Nocardia
B. Tubercle bacilli
C. Lepra bacilli
D. All of these ✅
1807. Catalase production is negative in which of the following?
A. Streptococcus ✅
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. Staphylococcus
1808. Addition of salt to a culture medium only allows salt-tolerant bacteria to grow, is an example of a:
A. Complex media
B. Enriched media.
C. Differential media
D. Selective media ✅
1809. Which of the following is a macronutrient?
A. Manganese.
B. Magnesium ✅
C. Molybdenum
D. Zinc
1810. The addition of which of the following would change a chemically defined medium into a complex medium?
A. Biotin (a vitamin)
B. K2HPO4
C. NH4NO3
D. Yeast extract ✅
1811. All of the following are true for agar EXCEPT it:
A. liquefies at 100°C.
B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga
C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C.
D. is metabolized by many bacteria. ✅
1812. The coagulase test is used to differentiate
A. S. epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
B. S. aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis ✅
C. S. aureus from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus pyogenes from S. pneumoniae
1813. All of the following are features of prokaryotes EXCEPT:
A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Photosynthesis
C. Sexual reproduction ✅
D. Locomotion
1814. Venereal transmission of disease in a population occurs through:
A. Injection
B. Ingestion
C. Sexual interaction ✅
D. Doctors
1815. The hemagglutinin is an antigenic determinant present on:
A. Human Papilloma virus
B. IBD virus
C. Influenza virus ✅
D. Adeno virus
1816. Which of the following is a viral zoonotic disease of poultry?
A. IBD
B. HPS
C. Bird Flu ✅
D. Chicken Infectious Anemia
1817. The occasional occurrence of a disease in a population is called as:
A. Epidemic
B. Outbreak
C. Pandemic
D. Sporadic ✅
1818. In cohort epidemiological studies, the word “cohort” means:
A. Population
B. Group ✅
C. Risk
D. Variable
1819. Which of the following is an arthropod vector borne disease of chicken?
A. Avian Influenza
B. Coccidiosis
C. Spirochetosis ✅
D. CRD
1820. For disease forecasting, which of the following system is currently used in epidemiology:
A. Topography
B. GIS ✅
C. Computer & IT
D. Mobile & cable
1821. Dengue fever is a:
A. Arbo-viral disease ✅
B. Protozoan disease
C. Oncoviral disease
D. Water-borne disease
1822. In an epidemiological study the incidence of disease in females is more than that of males but the prevalence is equal in both. It indicates:
A. Case fatality is more in female
B. Mortality in male is higher
C. Disease is of less duration in males ✅
D. Females harbor disease for longer duration
1823. The incidence of gonorrhea is continuously increasing in a particular locality. An investigator reveals that mostly sex workers are living there. This epidemic may be classified as:
A. Common source single exposure
B. Common source continuous exposure ✅
C. Propagated epidemic
D. Modern epidemic
1824. Plasmids are put into bacterial cells by:
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. Binding of cohesive sticky ends
D. Transformation ✅
1825. Sugar found in RNA is:
A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Ribose ✅
D. Deoxyribose
1826. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 populations, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate is:
A. 1%
B. 25% ✅
C. 5%
D. 0.25%
1827. Antibodies in our body are produced by:
A. Plasma cells ✅
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Monocytes
D. RBC’s
1828. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is:
A. Precipitation ✅
B. Flocculation
C. Agglutination
D. Complement fixation
1829. To prepare vaccine for small pox, the material used by Edward Jenner is:
A. Small pox material
B. Chicken pox material
C. Cow-pox material ✅
D. Measles material
1830. Antibody present in colostrum is:
A. IgG
B. IgA ✅
C. IgM
D. IgE
1831. The oldest and traditionally used adjuvant in vaccines is:
A. BCG
B. ISCOMS
C. Alum ✅
D. Montanide
1832. ________ is resistant to heat due to the presence of Mycolic acid.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✅
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Bacillus cereus
D. E. coli
1833. __________ are live microbial feed supplements that have beneficial effects on the host by improving its intestinal microbial balance.
A. Probiotics ✅
B. Prebiotics
C. Bacteriophages
D. Starter culture
1834. ____________ strain of E. coli has been associated with a number of food-borne outbreaks and is the cause of Bloody Diarrhea
A. O157:H7 ✅
B. O151:H8
C. O111:H8
D. All of these
1835. Sugar found in DNA is:
A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Ribose
D. Deoxyribose ✅
1836. Contain an anti-codon:
A. tRNA ✅
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. cDNA
1837. Enzyme required for transcription is:
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase ✅
D. RNAse
1838. The process of binding of primer to denatured DNA strand is called:
A. Denaturation
B. Annealing ✅
C. Renaturation
D. Primer extension
1839. Which of the following is a non-pathogen?
A. Yersinia Pestis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Bacillus subtilis ✅
D. Salmonella typhi
1840. Which of the following is not found in the bacterial growth curve?
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Chemostat ✅
1841. Organisms that thrives in elevated carbon dioxide are called:
A. Microaerophiles
B. Anaerobes
C. Aerotolerant
D. Capnophiles ✅
1842. What organism is considered an index of fecal pollution of drinking water supplies?
A. Rota Virus
B. E. coli ✅
C. Salmonella species
D. Hepatitis E virus
1843. The correct sequence for the viral life cycle is:
A. Attachment, biosynthesis, penetration, maturation, release
B. Penetration, biosynthesis, attachment, maturation, release
C. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release ✅
D. Biosynthesis, attachment, penetration, maturation, release
1844. Lyophilizer is used for:
A. Preserving cultures ✅
B. Maintaining temperature
C. Sterilization
D. All of the above
1845. The principal dye in Gram Staining is:
A. Methylene blue
B. Safranin
C. Carbol fuchsin
D. Crystal violet ✅
1846. Iodine is used in Gram staining as:
A. Mordant ✅
B. Principal dye
C. Decolorizer
D. Counter stain
1847. Quelling reaction is a rapid technique for the identification of:
A. E. coli
B. Streptococcus species
C. Staphylococcus species ✅
D. Mycoplasma species
1848. All of the followings are produced by Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:
A. Protein A
B. Hemolysin
C. Leucocidins
D. Tetanospasmin ✅
1849. ______ is spore forming genus of bacteria.
A. Pasteurella
B. Salmonella
C. Clostridium ✅
D. Mycobacterium
1850. Botulism is caused by:
A. Proteus
B. Clostridium ✅
C. Bacillus
D. Klebsiella
1851. Agar agar in the medium is used to provide:
A. Proteins
B. Minerals
C. Vitamins
D. Consistency ✅
1852. Live bacterial cells can be examined:
A. After Gram staining
B. In dark field microscope ✅
C. In bright field microscope
D. After special staining
1853. ZN staining is done for:
A. Salmonella
B. Mycobacterium ✅
C. Mycoplasma
D. All of the above
1854. Anaerobic jar is used for the cultivation of:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycoplasma bovis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Clostridium tetani ✅
1855. Cavity slide is used to study bacterial:
A. Motility ✅
B. Shape
C. Staining reaction
D. All of the above
1856. Oil immersion lens has magnification power:
A. 4 X
B. 10 X
C. 40 X
D. 100 X ✅
1857. Principal dye in Ziehl-Neelsen staining is:
A. Crystal violet
B. Safranin
C. Methylene blue
D. Carbol fuchsin ✅
1858. A patient’s spleen is enlarged. What is the correct term for this condition?
A. Splenomegaly ✅
B. Hypoplasia
C. Analgesia
D. Splenoplasia
1859. All is true about broth EXCEPT:
A. Liquid medium
B. Solidify below 40oC ✅
C. Enrichment
D. Source of nutrients
1860. During Gram staining, Gram negative bacteria will appear ______ after decolorization step.
A. Red ✅
B. Colorless
C. Blue
D. Pink
1861. All of the followings are Acid Fast negative bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Mycobacterium ✅
D. Mycoplasma
1862. All is true about agar slant EXCEPT:
A. Slope form
B. Preservation of cultures
C. For anaerobic bacteria ✅
D. Solid medium
1863. ______ is an example of Gram-negative bacteria.
A. E. coli ✅
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Bacillus
1864. The function of the red blood cell is to:
A. Produce antibodies against bacteria and viruses
B. Act as a phagocyte
C. Carry oxygen to the tissues ✅
D. Help increase osmotic pressure within the vessels
1865. In which group of animals would you normally expect to find nucleated RBCs?
A. Goat
B. Parrot
C. Snake ✅
D. Horse
1866. Inflammation of the mammary glands is termed:
A. Hepatitis
B. Meningitis
C. Mastitis ✅
D. Enteritis
1867. Lyophilization is:
A. Holding at 72° C for 15 seconds
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Freeze-drying ✅
D. Sterility testing
1868. Pasteurization is:
A. Holding at 72° C for 15 seconds ✅
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Freeze-drying
D. Sterility testing
1869. Bacterial endospores are ______.
A. Resistant to heat and desiccation ✅
B. A form of reproduction
C. A consequence of mating
D. Highly susceptible to antiseptics
1870. Vaccines may be given by any of the following routes, EXCEPT:
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intranasal
D. Intraperitoneal ✅
1871. What method is best used to sterilize heat-sensitive medical equipment?
A. Dry heat
B. Autoclaving
C. Gas sterilization ✅
D. Pasteurization
1872. Phagocytosis DOES NOT involve:
A. Chemotaxis
B. Adherence
C. Ingestion
D. Diapedesis ✅
1873. What is the function of interferon?
A. Destroys toxins
B. Inhibits viruses ✅
C. Kills bacteria
D. Inactivates protozoa
1874. The first phagocytes to respond to an infection are:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Neutrophils ✅
C. Basophils
D. Eosinophils
1875. The third line of defense against foreign invaders in the body is:
A. Agglutination
B. Inflammation
C. Specific immunity ✅
D. Interferon production
1876. What cells are phagocytic?
A. Granulocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils and macrophages ✅
D. Macrophages and lymphocytes
1877. ___ is used for antimicrobial susceptibility testing.
A. Sabouraud agar
B. Mueller-Hinton agar ✅
C. MacConkey agar
D. Blood agar
1878. If a test result is a false positive, it means that:
A. Test is negative and the disease is absent
B. Test is negative and the disease is present
C. Test is positive and the disease is absent ✅
D. Test is positive and the disease is present
1879. What mineral is found in hemoglobin?
A. Iodine
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Iron ✅
1880. What is an intracellular parasite of erythrocytes?
A. Plasmodium ✅
B. Entamoeba
C. Trypanosoma
D. Toxoplasma
1881. The first line of defense that the body has against foreign invaders is the:
A. Antibodies
B. Neutrophils
C. Primary lymphoid tissue
D. Skin ✅
1882. ELISA is an acronym for:
A. Electro-linked immunosorbent assay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay ✅
C. Enzyme-linked immunoassay
D. Electrolytic isoantibody assay
1883. Which of the following cell types mediates adaptive immune responses?
A. Dendritic cell
B. Lymphocyte ✅
C. Macrophage
D. Natural Killer cell
1884. Which of the following does not kill endospores?
A. Autoclaving
B. Incineration
C. Hot-air sterilization
D. Pasteurization ✅
1885. Generally, endotoxins are products of:
A. Viruses
B. Gram-negative bacteria ✅
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. Fungi
1886. What organism causes strangles in horses?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus equi ✅
C. Corynebacterium equi
D. Strongylus vulgaris
1887. Causative agent of Fowl cholera is:
A. Pasteurella multocida ✅
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. All above
1888. Penicillin gives their bactericidal action due to:
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
C. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis ✅
D. Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis
1889. Which of the following statements is true concerning illness?
A. Illness is a feeling of not being normal and healthy. ✅
B. Illness and disease are the same thing.
C. Illness is an objectively measurable pathological condition of the body.
D. Both “A” and “B”
1890. Public health surveillance includes many activities. Which one is not part of public health surveillance?
A. Data collection
B. Data dissemination
C. Disease control ✅
D. Data analysis
1891. Epidemic refers to:
A. A disease that has a low rate of occurrence but that is constantly present in a community or region
B. An attack rate in excess of 10 per 1,000 population
C. The occurrence of finesses of similar nature clearly in excess of the normal expectation for that population at that time ✅
D. The annual case rate per 100,000 population
1892. Which of the following is responsible for secondary immune responses?
A. Mediated by naïve lymphocytes
B. Mediated by memory lymphocytes ✅
C. Mediated by effector lymphocytes
D. Mediated by antibodies
1893. Which of the following best describes a primary immune response?
A. 50-100-fold increase in specific IgG after 2-3 days
B. Small increase in specific IgG after 7-10 days
C. 50-100-fold increase in specific IgM after 2-3 days ✅
D. Small increase in specific IgM after 7-10 days
1894. What type of vaccine is used to protect vulnerable individuals from influenza?
A. It is an example of a subunit vaccine
B. It is an example of a live attenuated vaccine
C. It is an example of passive immunization
D. It is an example of a recombinant vaccine ✅
1895. Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
A. Bone marrow
B. Hypothalamus
C. Spleen ✅
D. Thymus
1896. Which mediator can lead to systemic inflammation?
A. Interferon alpha
B. Interferon gamma
C. Interleukin 10
D. Tumor Necrosis factor alpha ✅
1897. The type I interferon response is:
A. Important in the defense against bacteria
B. Important in the defense against helminths
C. Important in the defense against protozoa
D. Important in the defense against viruses ✅
1898. What do helper (CD4) T cells bind to?
A. Class I MHC / peptide complexes found on all body cells
B. Class II MHC / peptide complexes found mainly on antigen presenting cells ✅
C. The three dimensional (or tertiary) structure of a pathogen
D. Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)
1899. Which of these cell types is an important antigen presenting cell?
A. Helper T cells
B. Natural Killer cells
C. Dendritic cells ✅
D. Epithelial cells
1900. Which of the following explains clonal selection?
A. Memory cells are present at birth
B. Antigens activate specific lymphocytes ✅
C. The body selects which antigens to respond to
D. People with similar genes respond in a similar way
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