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1901. The mononuclear phagocyte system includes:
A. Granulocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Kupffer cells
D. Eosinophils
1902. An activated Natural killer (NK) cell can kill a cell expressing:
A. MHC class I and an NK cell ligand
B. MHC class II and an NK cell ligand
C. Absent MHC class I and an NK cell ligand
D. An NK cell ligand
1903. Which effectors can eradicate parasites?
A. Interferons
B. Neutrophils
C. Complement
D. Eosinophils
1904. The antigen-binding region of an antibody molecule is found in the:
A. Variable heavy chain
B. Variable light chain
C. Variable heavy and light chain
D. Hinge region
1905. Another name for ‘hepatocellular carcinoma’ is:
A. Hepatocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Hepatoma
D. Leukocytes
1906. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the major cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Which immune effector does it target?
A. B cells and plasma cells
B. Stem cells
C. CD4 expressing T cells
D. CD8 expressing T cells
1907. The transplantation of tissue from one part of the body to another is called an:
A. autograft
B. isograft
C. allograft
D. xenograft
1908. Are/were viruses:
A. The most abundant form of life on earth?
B. Discovered before bacteria?
C. Only grown in animals in the laboratory?
D. The cause of all human disease?
1909. What is the most important factor for virus classification?
A. The geometry of the virus
B. How many proteins the virus has
C. The disease a virus causes
D. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA
1910. A gene, that may cause of initiation of cancer growth, is known as:
A. Hepatitis causing gene
B. Mutated gene
C. Oncogene
D. Carcinogen
1911. Human pathogen, of a family ‘Togaviruses’ is:
A. Rotavirus
B. Rubella virus
C. Poliovirus
D. Papilloma virus
1912. Phase of bacterial growth in which bacterial parent cell does not divide but metabolic activity is vigorous, named as:
A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
1913. Study of ‘cancer’ is known as:
A. Cancer study
B. Oncology
C. Phycology
D. Cytology
1914. Which type of cell specifically destroys virally infected body cells?
A. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
B. Activated B lymphocytes
C. Phagocytic macrophages
D. Plasma cells
1915. Integration of viral ‘DNA’ into cell ‘DNA’ results in a structure named as:
A. Viral genome
B. Prophage
C. Virion
D. Prion
1916. A protein containing partial with no detectable ‘nucleic acid’ are known as:
A. Virion
B. Prions
C. Viroid
D. Proteins
1917. ‘Shigella’ and ‘Campylobacter’ are isolated by:
A. Urine culture
B. Stool Culture
C. Spinal fluid culture
D. Blood culture
1918. Transmission of ‘pathogens’ during pregnancy from mother to child is called as:
A. Direct transmission
B. Horizontal transmission
C. Vertical transmission
D. Indirect transmission
1919. ‘Lactobacillus’ is a human pathogen that is also part of normal flora and found in:
A. Colon
B. Mouth
C. Genital Tract of female
D. All of above
1920. A ‘polysaccharide’ that helps bacteria in adherence to surface is named as:
A. Granule
B. Glycocalyx
C. Mesosome
D. Nucleoid
1921. Only ciliated ‘protozoan’ that causes diarrhea in human is:
A. Babesia
B. Cyclospora
C. Balantidium
D. Isospora
1922. In Rhabdoviruses, term ‘rhabdo’ refers to as:
A. Bread shaped
B. Bullet shaped
C. Brick shaped
D. Beads shaped
1923. Gap between outer membrane and plasma membrane is named as:
A. Mesoderm
B. Metaderm
C. Plasma
D. Periplasm
1924. ‘Bacterial flagellum’ is made up of:
A. Sugars
B. Lipids
C. Polysaccharides
D. Proteins
1925. Circular, double-stranded and extrachromosomal DNA, can replicate independently of bacterial chromosome, called as:
A. Plasmid
B. Cosmic
C. Vector
D. Template
1926. Gram negative rods that do not ferment ‘lactose’ is:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Salmonella Typhi
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
1927. All ‘RNA’ viruses contain single-stranded ‘RNA’ EXCEPT:
A. Reovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. HIV
D. HBV
1928. In Q fever word ‘Q’ is used to denote:
A. Quest
B. Query
C. Quotation
D. Quality
1929. Common name for ‘tetanus’ is:
A. Malta fever
B. Fever
C. Locked jaw
D. Whooping cough
1930. Passage of ‘antibodies’ from one person to another is called:
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Non-specific immunity
1931. Process of mating through which two bacterial cells transfer their DNA, a cell acts as a host while other as recipient, process is known as:
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mating
1932. Entry portal for ‘influenza’ virus is:
A. Skin
B. Respiratory tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Mouth
1933. ‘Actinomycetes’ are long chain forming bacteria that resembles in structure with:
A. Hyphae of fungi
B. Algae
C. Protozoa
D. Endospores
1934. A duration of time, a specific antibody develops, becoming detachable in blood, known as:
A. Serology
B. Blood culture
C. Seroconversion
D. Antibody production
1935. ‘Penicillin’ is a drug, destroying cells, if they are in a growing stage, so penicillin is known to be a:
A. Bacteriocins
B. Bactericidal
C. Bacteriostatic
D. Bacteria inhibiting
1936. ‘BSE’ is also known as:
A. Mad dog disease
B. Sheep’s disease
C. Mad Cow disease
D. Kuru disease
1937. ‘Pleomorphic’ is term used particularly for bacteria, having:
A. One shape
B. Rods
C. Spirals
D. Variable shape
1938. A sudden change in sequence of DNA or RNA, is called:
A. Change
B. Alteration
C. Mutation
D. Transduction
1939. ‘PPD’ stands for:
A. Purified peptides derivatives
B. Purified proteins
C. Purified protein derivatives
D. Purified lipid derivatives
1940. Portal of entry for ‘H. influenzae’ is:
A. Genital tract
B. Upper respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Intestine
1941. In many clinical laboratories, swelling phenomena, helps in identification of certain organism, named as:
A. Quelling reaction
B. Swelling
C. Identification
D. Pathology
1942. M. bovis is also causative agent for ‘Tuberculosis’ in human and is transmitted by:
A. Cow’s milk
B. Goat’s milk
C. Camel’s milk
D. Poultry
1943. Transfer of ‘DNA’ from one bacterial cell to another is carried out by:
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. All of above
1944. Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter and Proteus are causative agent for:
A. Cancer
B. Urinary tract infections
C. Anthrax
D. Peritonitis
1945. Protein coat capsid of viruses, made up of repeated subunits, named as:
A. Proteins
B. Amino acids
C. Capsomere
D. Nucleotides
1946. Portal of entry for ‘clostridium tetani’ is:
A. Nose
B. Wound
C. Lesions
D. Mouth
1947. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Treponema pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis are isolated from the:
A. Blood culture
B. Genital tract culture
C. Sputum culture
D. Stool culture
1948. A type of phagocytes that are responsible for detection, destroying and engulfing pathogens:
A. Prophages
B. Bacteriophages
C. Micophages
D. Macrophages
1949. Bacterial toxins that are ‘lipopolysaccharides’ in nature and are integral part of bacterial cell wall are called:
A. Exotoxins
B. Toxins
C. Endotoxins
D. Capsular toxins
1950. ‘Meningitis’ is a disease of brain which is caused by:
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Meningococcus
D. All of above
1951. Substitutions that prematurely stops synthesis of protein, by generating stop codon, called as:
A. Missense mutation
B. Nonsense mutation
C. Frameshift mutation
D. Alternation
1952. Pathogens that can cause serious infections in ‘immunocompromised’ patients are called:
A. Infectious pathogens
B. Opportunistic pathogens
C. Virulent pathogens
D. Lethal pathogens
1953. Causative agent for ‘scrapie’ in sheep is:
A. Virion
B. Prion
C. Viroid
D. Bacteria
1954. A pore forming ‘toxin’ that especially damage white blood cells are known as:
A. P-V leukocidin
B. Exfoliatin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Exotoxin
1955. ‘Measles; and ‘mumps’ virus belongs to a family, called:
A. Orthomyxoviruses
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Filovirus
D. Retrovirus
1956. After a viral infection, humans and other animals produces a heterogeneous group of ‘glycoproteins’ named as:
A. Killer cells
B. Interferons
C. Alpha and beta cells
D. Lymphocytes
1957. Transcription of ‘RNA’ to double-stranded ‘DNA’ is catalyzed by enzyme:
A. Polymerase
B. Transcriptase
C. Reverse Transcriptase
D. Ligase
1958. A class of protein, functions as antibodies, present in cells and serum of immune system, called:
A. Myoglobin
B. Immunoglobulin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Globular proteins
1959. Majority of upper and lower respiratory tract infection is caused by the:
A. Hantavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 1
D. Poliovirus
1960. Golden color of ‘S. aureus’ is due to pigment named as:
A. Chloroplast
B. Carotenoids
C. Chromoplast
D. Xanthophyll
1961. Site of attachment of ‘rabies’ virus is:
A. Acetylcholine receptor
B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes
C. Fibroblast receptor
D. Wall receptor
1962. In viral ‘gene’ expression first step is synthesis of:
A. Messenger RNA
B. Transfer RNA
C. Ribosomal RNA
D. Proteins
1963. Virus size is determined by protein coat named as:
A. Cell wall
B. Capsid
C. Capsomere
D. Cell membrane
1964. Method which is used primarily for purification of milk is called:
A. Sterilization
B. Autoclaving
C. Pasteurization
D. Ethanol
1965. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes, as name indicates, show variable shape of:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes
1966. A chemical, used for removal of microorganisms from mucous membrane and skin, called as:
A. Detergents
B. Alcohol
C. Pesticides
D. Antiseptics
1967. When ‘phagocytes’ coats infectious particles for destruction, process is called as:
A. Opsonization
B. Defense
C. Destruction
D. Pathogenesis
1968. Site of attachment for ‘HIV’ virus is:
A. Acetylcholine receptor
B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes
C. Fibroblast receptor
D. Wall receptor
1969. ‘Syphilis’ is caused by:
A. Borrelia
B. Treponema
C. Leptosira
D. Mycolasma
1970. For purification of swimming pools and water supplies of chemical used is:
A. Alcohol
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Heavy metals
1971. ‘Fungal’ cell membrane in contrast to human cell membrane is composed of:
A. Sterol
B. Cholesterol
C. Egrosterol
D. Lipids
1972. Alternative name for ‘polymorphonuclear leukocytes’ is:
A. Leukocytes
B. Erthyrocytes
C. Granulocytes
D. Phages
1973. When exchange of segment between viruses having segmented genome, process is known as:
A. Recombination
B. Transfer
C. Translation
D. Reassortment
1974. Polypeptides that are secreted by bacterial cell and released outside, called:
A. Endotoxins
B. Exotoxins
C. Toxins
D. Virulent factors
1975. ‘Retroviruses’ are also called as:
A. DNA Tumor virus
B. RNA Tumor virus
C. Naked Viruses
D. Enveloped viruses
1976. ‘Toxoplasmosis’ is caused by:
A. T. tropic
B. T. cruzi
C. T. gondii
D. L. tropica
1977. Recipient bacteria in conjugation are usually:
A. Female bacterium
B. Male bacterium
C. Bacterium
D. E. coli
1978. Prions are normal human proteins and they do no caused any:
A. Inflammatory response
B. Scratches
C. Harmful response
D. Neutral
1979. What is most unique feature of mycoplasma?
A. Wall less
B. Saprophyte
C. Marine
D. Ozone layer habitat
1980. ‘Interferons’ stops growth of viruses by blocking translation of viral:
A. Proteins
B. Capsids
C. Capsomere
D. Glycoproteins
1981. Before ‘ immunization’ skin is cleaned with:
A. Detergents
B. Insecticides
C. Alcohol
D. Ethanol
1982. ‘Peptidoglycan’ is vital sugar present in bacterial:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell wall
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleus
1983. Which is not included in portal of entry of skin?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Rabies virus
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Poliovirus
1984. ‘Leprosy’ is caused by a member of genus:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Treponema
C. Borrelia
D. Yersinia pestis
1985. In therapeutic process, nucleic acid is delivered in patient’s cell as a drug to recover a disease, process is known as:
A. Drug therapy
B. Physiotherapy
C. Gene therapy
D. Chemotherapy
1986. Warts in human are caused by virus:
A. Adenovirus
B. Arenavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. Rubella virus
1987. Poliovirus have single-stranded ‘RNA’ of:
A. Negative polarity
B. Positive polarity
C. Neutral
D. Bipolar
1988. Only humans are infected by H. influenzae and they have no:
A. Animal reservoir
B. Capsule
C. Antigen
D. Serotype
1989. ‘N. gonorrhea’ enters body through:
A. Respiratory tract
B. Genital tract
C. Nose of humans
D. Eyes of humans
1990. ‘Rhabdoviruses’ is also named as:
A. Rotavirus
B. Measles virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Rabies virus
1991. A polyene, named as nystatin has:
A. Antiviral activity
B. Antibacterial activity
C. Antifungal activity
D. Neutral
1992. A disease ‘brucellosis’ is also named as:
A. Fever
B. Undulant Fever
C. Hemorrhagic fever
D. Cold fever
1993. All “herpesviruses” have:
A. Helical structure
B. Icosahedral core
C. Spiral shape
D. Linear Shape
1994. Gram positive rod that causes food poisoning is:
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
1995. Reproduction of bacteria, usually undergoes:
A. a sexual reproduction
B. a binary fission
C. a budding
D. a spore reproduction
1996. Attachment of receptors and virus, known to be:
A. Random
B. Specific
C. Irregular
D. Regular
1997. “Amoebic dysentery” is caused by:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. B. coli
D. Shigella dysenteriae
1998. To prevent from ‘pathogens’ first line defense mechanism is called as:
A. Adaptive immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Cell-mediated immune response
D. Humoral immune response
1999. “Genital tract” is portal of entry for:
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Candida albicans
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. All of above
2000. Vaccine used for treatment of “tuberculosis” is:
A. MMR Vaccine
B. Bacilli Chalmette Guerin
C. Trojan horse vaccine
D. Bacteriocins
2001. In sheep, “prions” are causative agent for:
A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B. Scrapie
C. Cancer
D. Ulcer
2002. M. tuberculosis multiplies and survive within a cellular ‘vacuole’ named as:
A. Food vacuole
B. Phagosome
C. Phagocyte
D. Osteocyte
2003. ______ is catalase NEGATIVE bacterial genus.
A. Streptococcus
B. Salmonella
C. Proteus
D. Staphylococcus
2004. ________ bacteria can grow in acidic pH?
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Lactobacilli
C. Shigella
D. Salmonella
2005. A disease producing species occurring in a mixed culture can often be selected on the basis of its:
A. Pathogenic properties
B. Special carbon source
C. Special nitrogen source
D. None of these
2006. Plate counts are often reported as:
A. CFU
B. CFU/ml
C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Thousands/ml
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