MCQ Test body { font-family: Arial, sans-serif; margin: 20px; } .question { margin-bottom: 20px; } .tick { color: green; /* Green color for tick mark */ font-weight: bold; } .question-title { font-weight: bold; /* Bold the questions */ }
1501. The ability of an organism to resist infections by the pathogens is called___________.
A. Infection
B. Hypersensitivity
C. Immunity
D. Allergy
1502. __________ is NOT found in tears?
A. Lysozyme
B. Lactoferin
C. IgA
D. IgE
1503. Name the cytokines which released in response to virus infection?
A. Interferons
B. Monokines
C. Lymphokines
D. Interleukins
1504. Name the group of pattern recognition molecules which functions exclusively as a signaling receptor?
A. CRP
B. Toll-like receptor
C. MBL
D. LPS
1505. Name the first cell which recruited at the place of infection.
A. Nk cells
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
1506. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of a good antigen?
A. Large in size
B. Foreignness
C. Highly complex
D. Reproduce only by binary fission
1507. Which of these is NOT a characteristic feature of adaptive immunity?
A. Immunogenic memory
B. Antigen non-specific immunity
C. Self/ non-self-recognition
D. Diversity
1508. Which of the following cell is a “multipotent cell?”
A. T-cell
B. B-cell
C. HSC
D. Monocytes
1509. Mark the one, which is NOT a lymphoid progenitor cell.
A. Monocyte
B. B-cell
C. T-cell
D. NK cells
1510. What is the origin of B-cell?
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Thymus
D. Bone marrow
1511. Which of the following is NOT polymorphonuclear leukocytes?
A. Eosinophils
B. Mast cell
C. Macrophages
D. Basophils
1512. Which of the following cells has a high affinity receptor for IgE?
A. Dendritic cell
B. Mast cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
1513. Name the macrophages which are associated central nervous system.
A. Alveolar macrophages
B. Kupffer cell
C. Mesangial
D. Microglial cells
1514. Name the molecule which constitutively expressed on the dendritic cell?
A. Class I MHC
B. Class II MHC
C. APC
D. Antigen
1515. What is the name of MHC in humans?
A. HLA
B. H2
C. Adjuvants
D. Haplotype
1516. Which of the following polypeptide is important for the expression of MHC I on the cell membrane?
A. Interferons
B. β2-microglobin
C. Lymphokines
D. Interleukins
1517. Which of these are non-professional antigen presenting cells?
A. Macrophages
B. Dendritic cells
C. Fibroblast
D. B lymphocytes
1518. Name the cell which receives antigen presented by MHC molecule.
A. Nk cells
B. B-cells
C. T-cells
D. Macrophages
1519. Name the class of MHC which is recognized by CD4 TH cell.
A. MHC cannot recognize T cells
B. MHC III
C. MHC I
D. MHC II
1520. Which MHC molecule recognizes CD8 TC cells?
A. MHC I
B. MHC II
C. MHC III
D. HLA-C
1521. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about superantigens?
A. Viral or bacterial proteins
B. Endogenous by nature
C. Unique binding ability
D. Activate a large number of T-cells
1522. Synthesis of antibodies takes place by which of the following cells?
A. Bone marrow cells
B. T-cells
C. B-cells
D. Lymph
1523. Which immunoglobulin can pass through placenta?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG
1524. Which of these immunoglobulins is present in external secretion?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
1525. The basic structure of antibody is ______.
A. Y-shaped
B. X-shaped
C. Linear
D. Hyperbolic
1526. Name the class of immunoglobulin which takes part in hypersensitivity reaction?
A. IgG
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgM
1527. Which of the following is responsible for B-cell activation?
A. Infection
B. Antibody
C. Antigen
D. Allergy
1528. What is the meaning of thymus independent B-cell activation?
A. Without the participation of T-cell
B. Do not mature in the thymus
C. Thymus would not take part in its activation
D. Affinity maturation takes place in the thymus
1529. Which of the following acts as a co-receptor for B-cell activation?
A. Interferon
B. IL-2
C. IgA
D. CD19
1530. Hybridoma technology is used to produce_____.
A. Interferons
B. Monoclonal antibodies
C. Polyclonal antibodies
D. Immune response
1531. Name the most commonly used monoclonal antibody for treatment of breast cancer?
A. Fluconazole
B. Prostaglandin
C. Acyclovir
D. Herceptin
1532. Mark the one which is NOT used in generating antibody diversity?
A. Combinatorial V(D)J joining
B. Juntional and insertional diversification
C. Somatic hypermutation
D. Binary fission
1533. Which of the tracing is NOT the role of T-cell receptor complex?
A. CDR
B. CD3
C. CD19
D. CD40L
1534. Name the syndrome occurs in children due to deficiency of the thymus.
A. Acromegaly
B. Gigantism
C. Cushing syndrome
D. DiGeorge syndrome
1535. Which of the following steps is NOT involved in the ACTIVATION of T-cell?
A. Double positive converts to single positive T-cell
B. Foreign peptide bound to MHC provide signals
C. CD28 of TCR interacts with B7 of APC
D. CD23 has ITAM, which transducer signals
1536. _____ cytokine acts as a T-cell growth factor.
A. IL-3
B. IL-2
C. IL-4
D. IL-5
1537. Name the cytokines which involved in hematopoiesis and secreted by TH1 and TH2 cells?
A. IL-3
B. IL-2
C. IL-4
D. IL-5
1538. Mark the correct role of cytotoxic T-cells.
A. Help in B-cell activation
B. Produce cytotoxin
C. Proliferate T-cell
D. Kill the infected cell
1539. Name the major constituents of cytotoxic T-lymphocyte?
A. Lysozyme
B. Lymph
C. Protein
D. Perforin and granzyme
1540. The correction of changes in DNA by a set of process known as___________.
A. DNA Replication
B. DNA repair
C. DNA Translation
D. DNA Transcription
1541. Which of the following is NOT a type of reverse mutation?
A. Back mutation
B. Intergenic suppressor mutation
C. Intragenic suppressor mutation
D. Missense mutation
1542. Name the type of mutation in which the cause of mutation is not known?
A. Spontaneous mutation
B. Suppressor mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Missense mutation
1543. Addition or deletion of bases causes which kind of mutation?
A. Transversion
B. Frameshift mutation
C. Transition
D. Transcription
1544. Name the phenomenon where a single cell is able to reproduce the whole organism?
A. Transfection
B. Gene knockin
C. Transgenesis
D. Animal cloning
1545. Which cloning technique is used to clone the whole organism?
A. DNA cloning
B. Reproductive cloning
C. Gene cloning
D. Therapeutic cloning
1546. Name the mechanism which is used to correct the defective gene?
A. Gene therapy
B. Gene knockout
C. Gene knock-in
D. Restriction Fragment Length Polymers
1547. Name the type of culture which is prepared by inoculating directly from the tissue of an organism to culture media?
A. Primary cell culture
B. Secondary cell culture
C. Cell lines
D. Transformed cell culture
1548. What is a cell line?
A. Multilayer culture
B. Transformed cells
C. Multiple growth of cells
D. Sub culturing of primary culture
1549. Name the organism from which first cell line was derived?
A. E. coli
B. Sheep
C. Mouse
D. Drosophila
1550. Which of the following is the characteristics of a normal cell?
A. Anchorage independent
B. Continuous cell lines
C. Dependent on external growth factor
D. No contact inhibition
1551. Which of the following is NOT the part of growth medium for animal culture?
A. Starch
B. Serum
C. Carbon source
D. Inorganic salts
1552. Name the cells which lost their control of the regulated division, differentiation, and apoptosis?
A. Tumor cell
B. Immune cell
C. Platelets
D. Stem cells
1553. Which of the following is NOT the type of cancer?
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Leukemia
D. Caspases
1554. Damage and errors in DNA cause_______.
A. Mutation
B. DNA repair
C. Translation
D. Transcription
1555. Arrange the following sequences of tumor development in the correct order?
1) Metastasis 2) Progression
3) Promotion 4) Initiation
A. 2, 3, 4, 1
B. 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 3, 4, 2
1556. Name the chemical carcinogen which causes prostate cancer.
A. Radon
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. Asbestos
1557. Extrachromosomal DNA present in prokaryotes is called_______.
A. Cocci group of bacteria
B. Chainlike group of bacteria
C. Plasmid
D. Grapelike cluster of bacteria
1558. What is the pH of an empty stomach?
A. 0.13
B. 1.3
C. 13
D. 130
1559. Islets of Langerhans are found in _______.
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Intestines
1560. The movement of an esophagus to help the food down the GI tract __________.
A. Mastication
B. Emulsification
C. Peristalses
D. Ejection
1561. The three different cells found in the stomach are:
A. Chief cells, renal cells, nephron
B. Renal cells, mucous cells, hepatic cells
C. Nephrons, hepatic cells, parietal cells
D. Chief cells, parietal cells, mucous cells
1562. A vestigial organ for humans found near the junction of the small and large intestine is the ___.
A. Appendix
B. Nictitating Membrane
C. Coccyx
D. Pinna
1563. Extraction of a small section of diseased tissue to study and diagnose is called ______.
A. Autopsy
B. Biopsy
C. Necrosis
D. Endoscopy
1564. pH in the small intestine of human is _______.
A. 2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
1565. The cells of the small intestine have a special structure that helps in the absorption of food. This structure is ________.
A. Villi
B. Pseudopodia
C. Flagella
D. Attachment sites
1566. The _____ connects the small intestine and liver.
A. Pulmonary vein
B. Renal vein
C. Hepatic portal
D. Cardiac vein
1567. What solution is used to maintain sterility in labs?
A. Sodium Chloride
B. Sodium Hypochlorite
C. Sodium Cyanide
D. Sodium Sulphate
1568. An electrophoresis machine is used to _______.
A. Separate DNA
B. Separate blood components
C. Separate the bone components
D. Separate the muscle fibers
1569. Which of the following devices are used to maintain a sterile environment while working with microorganisms?
A. Laminar Airflow
B. Microwave oven
C. Water Bath
D. Incubator
1570. The cells related to blood are collectively called as
A. Oestoblast cells
B. Concdrocyte cells
C. Hematopoietic cells
D. Megakaryocytes
1571. How many blood types exist including the positive and negative factors?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Nine
1572. If the blood of two different groups is mixed together, what problem is observed?
A. Coagulation
B. Agglutination
C. Thrombus formation
D. Embolism
1573. Other than transfusion, when is it necessary to take the Rh factor into consideration?
A. Cathertization
B. Spleen Rupture
C. Pregnancy
D. Blood Donation
1574. What will happen if the incubation period, post restriction digestion is shortened?
A. Indigestion
B. Complete digestion
C. Partial digestion
D. Double digestion
1575. Which blood type is a universal donor?
A. O Negative
B. O Positive
C. AB Negative
D. AB Positive
1576. If a person has AB negative blood, who all can donate blood to him?
A. A+, B-, O -, AB+
B. A-, B -, O+, AB+
C. A+, B+, O+, AB
D. A-, B-, O-, AB-
1577. Anemia is caused due to deficiency of _____.
A. Hemoglobin
B. Fibrin
C. Thrombin
D. Neutrophils
1578. A virus that destroys the immunity of the body and can spread through blood is __________.
A. HIV
B. Gonorrhea
C. HBV
D. Herpesvirus
1579. The leaving of neutrophils from the blood vessels to act on the site of injury is called as _____.
A. Histosis
B. Diapedesis
C. Amboidal Movement
D. Flagellation
1580. Process of killing or removal of microorganism from inanimate objects is known as
A. Sterilization
B. Pasteurization
C. Sanitization
D. Disinfection
1581. In the purification of a plasmid DNA what will the clear lysate consist of?
A. Genomic DNA
B. Plasmid DNA
C. Buffer
D. Cell debris
1582. How can it be determined that a DNA molecule is cleaved by the action of endonuclease?
A. Temperature check
B. Color indication
C. Checking the viscosity of the solution
D. pH check
1583. To be able to coexist in the same cell, different plasmids must be ______.
A. Compatible
B. Conjugative
C. Stable at high temperatures
D. Of high copy number
1584. A longitudinal or prospective study is also referred to as a:
A. Ecological study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Cohort study
D. Observational study
1585. Modifications of histones can affect?
A. Transcription
B. Gene expression
C. Translation
D. Both “A” and “B”
1586. Splicing protects RNA from
A. Replication
B. Amplification
C. Degeneration
D. Degradation
1587. The Greek word “demos” means what?
A. Native
B. Epidemiology
C. People
D. All given answers
1588. Which of the following is enrichment media?
A. Selenite F broth
B. Chocolate media
C. Dorset egg media
D. Meat extract media
1589. If you want to know the proportion of the disease that could be prevented by eliminating the exposure in entire study population, you should calculate:
A. Attributable fraction
B. Attributable risk
C. Population attributable risk percentage
D. Negative predictive value
1590. Wound infection caused by ‘Pasteurella multocida’ is associated with bite of:
A. Cats
B. Dogs
C. Rodents
D. Both “A” and “B”
1591. Which of following contains both DNA and RNA?
A. Plasmids
B. Bacteria
C. Prions
D. Mature Virion
1592. Which one of the following factors, released by heating a suspension of sheep erythrocytes, is required for the growth of Haemophilus Influenzae in chocolate agar?
A. Coagulase
B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C. Hemoglobin
D. Protein A
1593. The synthesis of erythrogenic toxin by specific strains of group A Streptococcus is determined by:
A. Bacterial chromosomal gene
B. Gene carried by a lysogenic phage
C. Specific virulence plasmid
D. Transposon
1594. A mutation in DNA gyrase is likely to result in resistance to which one of the following antibiotics?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Rifampin
1595. Where are the platelets produced?
A. In Liver
B. In Spleen
C. In Gall Bladder
D. In Megakaryocytes
1596. On collecting blood, what solution is added to it?
A. Sodium citrate
B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium phosphate
D. Potassium phosphate
1597. How is dengue detected in blood?
A. Low level of RBCs
B. Low level of WBCs
C. Low level of Platelets
D. Low level of fibrin
1598. Gram negative curved rod bacterium is:
A. Campylobacter
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Mycoplasma
1599. Animal sources for ‘Brucella’ includes cattle, goats, sheep and _____.
A. Pigs
B. Fowl
C. Chickens
D. Reptiles
1600. ‘Retroviruses’ are also called as:
A. DNA tumor virus
B. RNA tumor virus
C. Naked virus
D. Enveloped virus
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