MCQ Test
1101. Which part of the light microscope controls the intensity of light entering the viewing area?
A. Coarse adjustment screw
B. Fine adjustment screw
C. Diaphragm ✅
D. Condenser lens
1102. Which of the following is used in electron microscope?
A. Electron beams
B. Magnetic fields
C. Light waves
D. Electron beams and magnetic fields ✅
1103. Electron Microscope can give a magnification up to ___________.
A. 400,000X
B. 100,000X
C. 15000X
D. 100X
1104. Which of the following are true for electron microscopy?
A. Specimen should be thin and dry
B. Image is obtained on a phosphorescent screen
C. Electron beam must pass through evacuated chamber
D. All of the above ✅
1105. In Gram-staining, iodine is used as a_________.
A. Fixative
B. Mordant ✅
C. Solublizer
D. Stain
1106. Which among the following are “Spirochetes”?
A. Spirillum volutans
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Streptomyces sp.
D. Treponema pallidum ✅
1107. Negative Staining is used for examining ______.
A. Virus particles
B. Protein molecules
C. Bacterial flagella
D. All of the above ✅
1108. Which among the following helps us in getting a three-dimensional picture of the specimen?
A. Transmission Electron Microscope
B. Scanning Electron Microscope ✅
C. Compound Microscope
D. Simple Microscope
1109. The secondary electrons radiated back in scanning microscope is collected by?
A. Specimen
B. Anode
C. Vacuum chamber
D. Cathode ✅
1110. Which of the following techniques are used in TEM for examining cellular structure?
A. Negative-Staining
B. Shadow Casting
C. Ultrathin Sectioning
D. All of the above ✅
1111. Correct order of reagents in Gram-Staining is:
A. Crystal violet, alcohol, iodine solution, safranin
B. Crystal violet, iodine solution, alcohol, safranin ✅
C. Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine solution
D. Iodine solution, crystal violet, alcohol, safranin
1112. Which bacteria appears purple-violet colour after staining?
A. Gram-positive ✅
B. Gram-negative
C. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative
D. Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative
1113. Which of the following are true for Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Alcohol usage increases permeability of cell wall
B. Crystal violet-iodine (CV-I) complex is extracted
C. Pore size decreases and the CV-I complex cannot be extracted
D. Both “A” and “B” ✅
1114. Gram-positive bacteria are usually more susceptible to?
A. Streptomycin
B. Tetracycline
C. Penicillin ✅
D. Chloramphenicol
1115. Which of the following is the example of Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Escherichia coli ✅
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Bacillus subtilis
1116. When rod shaped bacteria appears in pairs, it is known as?
A. Diplobacilli ✅
B. Streptobacilli
C. Diplococci
D. Staphylococci
1117. Bacteria with less than a complete twist or comma shaped is known as?
A. Spirilla
B. Helical
C. Vibrio ✅
D. Spirochetes
1118. Bacteria having cluster of flagella at both poles of cells are known as?
A. Lophotrichous ✅
B. Peritrichous
C. Amphitrichous
D. Monotrichous
1119. Salmonella typhi has which type of flagella arrangement?
A. Amphitrichous
B. Peritrichous ✅
C. Monotrichous
D. Lophotrichous
1120. F pilus has a major role as___________.
A. Motility of the cell
B. Port of entry of genetic material during mating ✅
C. Attachment to host cell
D. Human infection
1121. Peptidoglycan layer is present in large quantity in?
A. Gram-positive bacteria ✅
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Algae
1122. When a bacteria swim towards a chemical, it is termed as___________.
A. Positive chemotaxis ✅
B. Phototaxis
C. Negative chemotaxis
D. Magnetotaxis
1123. Cord factor is a ___________.
A. Protein
B. Teichoic acid derivative
C. Mycolic acid derivative ✅
D. Carbohydrate
1124. Teichoic acid present in Gram-positive bacteria can bind to which ion?
A. Fe ions
B. Phosphorus ions
C. Mg ions
D. Sulphur ions
1125. Which among the following acts as receptors for bacteriophage attachment in Gram-negative bacteria?
A. Cilia
B. O antigens ✅
C. Lipid A
D. Teichoic acid
1126. Gram-negative bacteria are more resistant to antibiotics due to the presence of?
A. Thin peptidoglycan wall
B. Outer lipopolysaccharide layer ✅
C. Porin proteins
D. Teichoic acid
1127. Which of following are present in teichoic acids?
A. Ribitol residues
B. Glycerol residues
C. Glucose residues
D. Ribitol or glycerol residues ✅
1128. Cytoplasmic membrane and cell material bounded by it plus outer membrane of cell is known as ___.
A. Protoplast
B. Cytoplast
C. Spheroplast ✅
D. Cell membrane
1129. Which among the following is associated with export of exocellular enzymes?
A. Central mesosomes
B. Peripheral mesosomes ✅
C. Thylakoids
D. Nucleus
1130. Ribosomes of prokaryotes have a sedimentation coefficient of?
A. 90S
B. 80S
C. 50S
D. 70S ✅
1131. _______ is used as a solidifying agent for media.
A. Beef extract
B. Peptone
C. Agar ✅
D. Yeast extract
1132. What helps in the heat resistance of endospore?
A. Calcium-DPA complex ✅
B. Water
C. Methylene
D. Calcium
1133. Which of the following methods can be utilized for removing peripheral proteins of the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Treatment by detergents ✅
B. Osmotic shock
C. Heat application
D. Destruction of the membrane
1134. The organisms which can use reduced inorganic compounds as electron donors are known as ___.
A. Chemotrophs
B. Organotrophs
C. Lithotrophs ✅
D. Phototrophs
1135. Which of the following is nutritional characterization of Escherichia coli?
A. Chemotrophic
B. Organotrophic
C. Heterotrophic ✅
D. All of the above
1136. Which of the following amino acids require Sulphur for their synthesis?
A. Tryptophan
B. Methionine
C. Cystine
D. Methionine and cystine ✅
1137. Phosphorus is essential component of __________.
A. Teichoic acid
B. Nucleotides
C. Phospholipids
D. All of these ✅
1138. Which of the following are trace elements?
A. Potassium ion
B. Sodium ion
C. Copper ion ✅
D. Magnesium ion
1139. Which of the following ions are cofactors for various enzymes?
A. Potassium ion
B. Iron ion
C. Magnesium ion and Iron ion ✅
D. Calcium ion
1140. Which of the following is a characteristic of beef extract?
A. Product resulting from the digestion of proteinaceous materials
B. Aqueous extract of lean beef tissue ✅
C. Aqueous extract of yeast cells
D. Complex carbohydrate obtained from certain marine algae
1141. Which of following is a rich source of B vitamins?
A. Peptone
B. Yeast extract ✅
C. Beef extract
D. Agar
1142. The isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae by the use of certain antibiotics in media is an example of which of the following?
A. Selective media ✅
B. Differential media
C. Enriched media
D. Assay media
1143. Nutrient broth contains beef extract and peptone respectively in how much amounts?
A. 0.2%, 0.4%
B. 0.1%, 0.6%
C. 0.3%, 0.5%
D. 0.7%, 0.3%
1144. Growth of bacteria refer to ________.
A. An increase in the size of an individual organism
B. An increase in the mass of an individual organism
C. Changes in the total population
D. An increase in number of cells ✅
1145. What is the temperature of liquid nitrogen?
A. 120-degree C
B. 0-degree C
C. -150-degree C
D. -196-degree C ✅
1146. Lag phase is also known as ___________.
A. Period of initial adjustment ✅
B. Transitional period
C. Generation time
D. Period of rapid growth
1147. Which of the following instrument is used for sterilizing the media after it has been prepared?
A. Autoclave ✅
B. Laminar Air Flow Chamber
C. Water bath
D. Incubator
1148. Which of the following is a Complex media for fungal growth?
A. Nutrient broth
B. Luria-Bertani media
C. Potato Dextrose Agar(PDA) media ✅
D. Mac Conkey Agar media
1149. Which of the following bacteria requires nicotinic acid as a growth factor in their media?
A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. E. coli
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
1150. The generation time for E. coli is ________.
A. 20 minutes
B. 35 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 13 minutes ✅
1151. Temperature that allows for most rapid growth during a short period of time is known as _____.
A. Minimum Temperature
B. Maximum Temperature
C. Optimum Temperature ✅
D. Growth Temperature
1152. Mesophiles are group of bacteria that grow within the temperature range of?
A. 0-20 degree Celsius
B. 25-40 degree Celsius ✅
C. 45-60 degree Celsius
D. more than 60 degrees Celsius
1153. The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is which type of bacteria?
A. Psychrophile
B. Mesophiles ✅
C. Thermophile
D. Mesophile and psychrophile
1154. The GasPak system is suitable for which of the following?
A. Aerobic bacteria
B. Anaerobic bacteria ✅
C. Facultative anaerobic bacteria
D. Microaerophilic bacteria
1155. Which of the following are functions of phosphates used in the preparation of media?
A. They act as buffer
B. Source of phosphorous
C. Act as “reserve alkali”
D. They act as buffer and is a source of phosphorous ✅
1156. Colony-forming units per ml is the unit of ______.
A. Microscopic count
B. Electronic enumeration
C. Viable count ✅
D. Turbidimetric measurement
1157. The optimum pH for the growth of most bacteria lies between_______.
A. 5-9
B. 6.5-7.5 ✅
C. 2-3.5
D. 9-9.5
1158. Which of the following bacterial species divides by fragmentation?
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Streptococcus faecalis
C. Rhodopseudomonas acidophila
D. Nocardia species ✅
1159. Which of the following does not occur during binary fission in bacteria?
A. Cell elongation
B. Cytokinesis
C. DNA duplication
D. Spindle formation ✅
1160. The portion of the growth curve where a rapid growth of bacteria is observed is known as ______.
A. Lag phase
B. Logarithmic phase ✅
C. Stationary phase
D. Decline phase
1161. In which of the following phase secondary metabolites are produced during growth?
A. Lag phase
B. Log/Exponential phase
C. Stationary phase ✅
D. Death phase
1162. Which phase shows reproduction rate equal to the equivalent death rate?
A. Log phase
B. Stationary phase ✅
C. Death phase
D. Lag phase
1163. Which of the following is used to grow bacterial culture continuously?
A. Chemostat ✅
B. Hemostat
C. Coulter-Counter
D. Turbidostat
1164. The average size of the cells in the exponential phase is ___________.
A. Larger than the initial size
B. Smaller than the initial size
C. Equal to the initial size ✅
D. Maybe smaller or larger than the initial size
1165. Isolation of pure culture refers to ___________.
A. Purification of culture
B. Introduction of inoculum
C. Separation of a single colony ✅
D. To grow microorganisms on a surface
1166. Which of the following is an indirect method for measuring bacterial growth?
A. Cell count
B. Cell mass
C. Cell activity
D. Both Cell mass and Cell activity ✅
1167. Which of the following instrument is used for bacterial count?
A. Petroff-Hausser counting chamber ✅
B. Microscope
C. Chemostat
D. Turbidostat
1168. Which of the following method is used for viable count of a culture?
A. Direct microscopic count
B. Plate-count method ✅
C. Membrane-filter count
D. Plate-count method and membrane-filter count
1169. How many cells present per millilitre in a bacterial culture can make the culture turbid?
A. 1 cell
B. 1000 cells
C. 10000 cells
D. 107-108 cells ✅
1170. Which of the following is a direct measurement of growth?
A. Determination of nitrogen content
B. Turbidimetric methods
C. Determination of Dry weight of cells ✅
D. Measurement of a specific chemical change
1171. Which of the following method is used for enumeration of bacteria in vaccines and cultures?
A. Microscopic Count
B. Membrane filter
C. Plate count ✅
D. Dry weight determination
1172. Which of the following is not a physical method for selection of pure culture?
A. Heat treatment
B. pH of the media
C. Cell size and motility
D. Use of dilute media ✅
1173. Which of the following has a larger diameter?
A. Well-separated colonies
B. Crowded colonies
C. Young colonies ✅
D. Old colonies
1174. During exponential phase, growth rate is ______.
A. Same as generation time
B. Reciprocal of generation time ✅
C. Time required for population to double
D. Rate of doubling population
1175. Vibrio cholerae can grow in a medium with a pH of ____________.
A. 5.5
B. 7.0
C. 8.5 ✅
D. 2.0
MCQ Test body { font-family: Arial, sans-serif; margin: 20px; } .question { margin-bottom: 20px; } .tick { color: green; /* Green color for tick mark */ font-weight: bold; } .question-title { font-weight: bold; /* Bold the questions */ }
1176. Disease-producing species occurring in a mixed culture can be selected by taking advantage of ___.
A. Its pathogenic properties
B. Special carbon source
C. Special nitrogen source
D. Toxic chemicals ✅
1177. Treponema can be selected by taking advantage of ___________.
A. Small cell size
B. Motility
C. Dilute media
D. Small cell diameter and bacterial motility ✅
1178. In pour-plate method, the medium should be maintained at what temperature?
A. 25 to 37-degree C
B. 60 to 67-degree C ✅
C. 45 to 50-degree C
D. 0 to 15-degree C
1179. Which of the following method can be used to determine the number of bacteria quantitatively?
A. Streak-plate
B. Spread-plate
C. Pour plate
D. Pour-plate and spread plate ✅
1180. Which of the following are NOT performed in lyophilization?
A. Agar slant is covered with mineral oil
B. Cell suspension is frozen at -60-degree C
C. Vials are connected to high-vacuum line
D. Bacterial sample is dehydrated ✅
1181. Which of the following is a function of cryoprotective agents?
A. For long-term preservation of cultures
B. Prevents cell damage due to ice crystal formation ✅
C. Prevents formation of ice
D. To trap the liquid nitrogen
1182. The American Type Culture Collection, located in Rockville, Maryland in the year 1980 has a collection of bacterial strain in what numbers?
A. 100,000
B. 1,000
C. 500
D. 11,500 ✅
1183. What is the color of colonies of S. aureus?
A. Pink
B. Red
C. Violet
D. Gold ✅
1184. Pyoverdin is which type of pigment?
A. Water-insoluble pigment
B. Water-soluble pigment
C. Fluorescent pigment ✅
D. Sparingly water-soluble pigment
1185. Glycolysis can occur in ___________.
A. Aerobic cells
B. Anaerobic cells
C. Both aerobic and anaerobic cells ✅
D. Neither aerobic and anaerobic cells
1186. Platinum loop wire is used in which of the following techniques?
A. Pour-plate
B. Streak-plate ✅
C. Spread-plate
D. Roll-tube technique
1187. Which of the following bacteria can synthesize all of the amino acids required for protein synthesis?
A. E. coli ✅
B. Lactobacillus bravis
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D. Bacillus subtilis
1188. Which of the following organism causes whooping cough in humans?
A. E. coli
B. Bordetella pertussis ✅
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Mycobacterium laprae
1189. S, the Svedberg unit is a measure of _________.
A. The size of the ribosome
B. The composition of the ribosome
C. How fast a particle sediments during ultracentrifugation. ✅
D. How fast the subunits combine in a ribosome.
1190. Endoflagella is present in which class of bacteria?
A. Spirilla
B. Spirochetes ✅
C. Bacillus
D. Coccus
1191. Where is the endoflagella located in Spirochetes?
A. In the cell membrane
B. In the cytoplasm
C. In the peptidoglycan layer
D. In the periplasmic space ✅
1192. Which of the following methods is used for viewing spirochetes?
A. Bright-field microscopy
B. Phase-contrast microscopy
C. Dark-field microscopy ✅
D. Electron microscopy
1193. Which among the following are microaerophilic bacteria?
A. Bacillus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Treponema ✅
D. Borrelia
1194. Which of the following bacteria causes syphilis in humans?
A. Treponema dysenteriae
B. Treponema pallidum ✅
C. Leptospira biflexa
D. Leptospira interrogans
1195. Pyocyanin, a blue water-soluble pigment is produced by which of the following pseudomonads?
A. P. mallei
B. P. syringae
C. P. fluorescens
D. P. aeruginosa ✅
1196. Which of the following genus of bacteria causes gastroenteritis in humans?
A. Salmonella ✅
B. Enterobacter
C. Escherichia
D. Shigella
1197. ________ is the causative agent of plague.
A. Y. enterocolitica
B. Y. pestis ✅
C. P. mirabilis
D. E. coli
1198. Which of the following family contains organisms that are non-motile / atrichous?
A. Enterobacteriaceae
B. Vibrionaceae
C. Pseudomonadaceae
D. Pasteurellaceae ✅
1199. The X factor and/or the V factor is required by which genus of bacteria?
A. Pasteurella
B. Hemophilus ✅
C. Actinobacillus
D. Streptococcus
1200. C. burnetti causes which of the following diseases?
A. Q fever ✅
B. Trench fever
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Typhoid
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