Blood Banking MCQs:

These 300+ multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of various aspects of blood banking, a critical component of transfusion medicine. Blood banking involves the collection, processing, testing, storage, and distribution of blood and blood components to ensure their safe and effective use in medical treatments. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including blood typing, compatibility testing, transfusion reactions, blood component therapy, and the management of adverse events. By answering these questions, you will gain a deeper insight into the complexities and importance of blood banking in modern healthcare.

MCQ Test
201. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely occur?
A. a false-positive result due to antigen excess
B. a false-positive result due to the prozone phenomenon
C. a false-negative result due to the prozone phenomenon
D. a false-negative result due to an antigen excess
202. A patient serum reacts with 2 of the 3 antibody screening cells at the AHG phase. 8 of the 10 units crossmatched were incompatible at the AHG phase. All reactions are markedly enhanced by enzymes. These results are most consistent with:
A. anti-M
B. anti-E
C. anti-c
D. anti-Fya
203. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to:
A. phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
B. recommend the use of directed donors, which are more likely to be compatible
C. use proteolytic enzymes to destroy the “in vitro” activity of some of the antibodies
D. freeze the patient’s serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units
204. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more often with which blood group system?
A. Rh
B. I
C. P
D. Duffy
205. An antibody that causes in vitro hemolysis and reacts with the red cells of 3 out of ten crossmatched donor units is most likely:
A. anti-Lea
B. anti-s
C. anti-k
D. anti-E
206. A patient’s serum reacted weakly positive (1+w) with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at the AHG test phase. The autocontrol was negative. Tests with ficin-treated panel cells demonstrated no reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results?
A. anti-Ch
B. anti-k
C. anti-e
D. anti-Jsb
207. An antibody identification study is performed with the 5-cell panel shown below:
Antigens 1 2 3 4 5 Test results
Panel cells I + 0 0 + + +
Panel cells II 0 0 + 0 + 0
Panel cells III 0 + + + 0 0
Panel cells IV 0 + + 0 + +
Panel cells V + + + 0 0 +
auto 0
An antibody against which of the following antigens could not be excluded?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
208. A 25-year-old Caucasian
209.
210. In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel after the immediate spin phase. There was no reactivity after incubation at 370C and after the anti-human globulin test phase. The antibody most likely is:
A. anti-F
B. anti-Lea
C. anti-C
D. anti-Fya
211. Transfusion of Ch+ (chido-positive) red cells to a patient with anti-Ch has been reported to cause:
A. no clinically significant red cell destruction
B. clinically significant immune red cell destruction
C. decreased 51Cr red cell survivals
D. febrile transfusion reactions
212. Result of a serum sample tested against a panel of reagent red cells gives presumptive evidence of an alloantibody directed against a high incidence antigen. Further investigation to confirm the specificity should include which of the following?
A. serum testing against red cells from random donors
B. serum testing against red cells known to lack high incidence antigens
C. serum testing against enzyme-treated autologous red cells
D. testing of an eluate prepared from the patient’s red cells
213. Refer to the following data:
Forward group: Reverse group:
anti-A anti-B anti-A1lectin A1cells A2cells B cells
4+ 0 4+ 0 2+ 4+
The ABO discrepancy seen above is most likely due to:
A. anti-A1
B. rouleaux
C. anti-H
D. unexpected IgG antibody present
214. Refer to the following panel:
215. Which characteristics are true of all 3 of the following antibodies: anti-Fya, anti-Jka, and anti-K?
A. detected at IAT phase and may cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn(HDFN) and transfusion reactions
B. not deteted with enzyme treated cells; may cause delayed transfusion reactions
C. requires the IAT technique for detection; usually not responsible for causing HDFN
D. may show dosage effect; may cause severe hemolytic transfusion reactions
216. Refer to the following cell panel
217. A pregnant woman has a positive antibody screen and the panel results are given below:
218. Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient’s red blood cells in vivo?
A. direct antiglobulin
B. complement fixation
C. indirect antiglobulin
D. immunofluorescence
219. Anti-I may cause a positive direct antiglobulin test(DAT) because of:
A. anti-I agglutinating the cells
B. C3d bound to the red cells
C. T-activation
D. C3c remaining on the red cells after cleavage of C3b
220. Which direct antiglobulin test results are associated with an anamnestic antibody response in a recently transfused patient?
Test result Polyspecific IgG C3 Control
result A +mf +mf 0 0
result B 1+ 0 1+ 0
result C 2+ 2+ 0 0
result D 4+ 4+ 4+ 0
mf = mixed field
A. result A
B. result B
C. result C
D. result D
221. In the direct(DAT) and indirect (IAT) antiglobulin tests, false negative reactions may result if the:
222. Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for:
A. IgG and IgA
B. IgG and C3d
C. IgM and IgA
D. IgM and C3d
223. In the direct antiglobulin test, the antiglobulin reagent is used to:
A. mediate hemolysis of indicator red blood cells by providing complement
B. precipitate anti-erythrocyte antibodies
C. measure antibodies in a test serum by fixing complement
D. detect preexisting antibodies on erythrocytes
224. AHG (Coombs) control cells:
A. can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents
B. can be used only for the indirect antiglobulin test
C. are coated only with IgG antibody
D. must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions
225. A 56-year-old female with cold agglutinin disease has a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). When the DAT id repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of the following is most likely to be detected?
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. C3d
D. C4a
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