Blood Banking MCQs:

These 300+ multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of various aspects of blood banking, a critical component of transfusion medicine. Blood banking involves the collection, processing, testing, storage, and distribution of blood and blood components to ensure their safe and effective use in medical treatments. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including blood typing, compatibility testing, transfusion reactions, blood component therapy, and the management of adverse events. By answering these questions, you will gain a deeper insight into the complexities and importance of blood banking in modern healthcare.

MCQ Test
226. The mechanism that best explains hemolytic anemia due to penicillin is:
A. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells
B. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of drug
C. drug-independent with autoantibody production
D. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT
227. Use of EDTA plasma prevents activation of the classical complement pathway by:
A. causing rapid decay of complement components
B. chelating Mg++ ions, which prevents the assembly of C6
C. chelating Ca++ ions, which prevents assembly of C1
D. preventing chemotaxis
228. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause production of autoantibodies?
A. penicillin
B. cephalothin
C. methyldopa
D. tetracycline
229. Serological results on an untransfused patient were:
Test Result
antibody screen negative at AHG
direct antiglobulin test 3+ with anti-C3d
eluate negative
These results are most likely due to:
A. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. cold agglutinin syndrome
C. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
D. drug induced hemolytic anemia
230. The drug cephalosporin can cause a positive direct antiglobulin test with hemolysis by which of the following mechanisms?
A. drug-dependent antibodies reacting with drug-treated cells
B. drug-dependent antibodies reacting in the presence of a drug
C. drug-independent with autoantibody production
D. nonimmunologic protein adsorption with positive DAT
231. Crossmatch results at the antiglobulin phase were negative. When 1 drop of check cells was added, no agglutination was seen. The most likely explanation is that the:
A. red cells were overwashed
B. centrifuge speed was set too high
C. residual patient serum inactivated the AHG reagent
D. laboratorian did not add enough check cells
232. Which of the following might cause a false-negative indirect antiglobulin test(IAT)?
A. over-reading
B. IgG-coated screening cells
C. addition of an extra drop of serum
D. too heavy a cell suspension
233. The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
A. anti-A1
B. anti-A2
C. subgroups of A
D. subgroups of B
234. What is the most appropriate diluents for preparing a solution of 8% bovine albumin for a red cell control reagent?
A. deionized water
B. distilled water
C. normal saline
D. Alserver solution
235. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
A. Fya
B. E
C. S
D. M
236. In a prenatal workup, the following results were obtained:
Forward group: Reverse Group:
anti-A anti-B anti-D Rh Control A1 cells B cells
4+ 2+ 4+ 0 0 3+
DAT: negative
antibody screen: negative
ABO discrepancy was thought to be due to an antibody directed against a component of the typing sera. Which test would resolve this discrepancy?
A. A1 lectin
B. wash patient’s RBCs and repeat testing
C. anti-A,B and extend incubation of the reverse group
D. repeat reverse group using A2 cells
237. Refer to the following panel:
238. Of the following, the most useful technique(s) in the identification and classification of high-titer, low-avidity (HTLA) antibodies is/are:
A. reagent red cell panels
B. adsorption and elution
C. titration and inhibition
D. cold autoadsorption
239. To confirm a serum antibody specificity identified as anti-P1, a neutralization study was performed and the following results obtained:
Test Result
serum + P1 substance negative
serum + saline negative
What conclusion can be made from these results?
A. anti-P1 is confirmed
B. anti-P1 is ruled out
C. a second antibody is suspected due to the results of the negative control
D. anti-P1 cannot be confirmed due to the results of the negative control
240. What happens to an antibody in neutralization study when a soluble antigen is added to the test?
A. inhibition
B. dilution
C. complement fixation
D. hemolysis
241. To confirm the specificity of anti-Leb, an inhibition study using Lewis substance was performed with the following results:
Test Result
tubes with patient serum + Lewis substance 0
tubes with patient serum + saline control +
What conclusion can be made from these results?
A. a second antibody is suspected due to the positive control
B. anti-Leb is confirmed because the tubes with Lewis substance are negative
C. anti-Leb is not confirmed because the tubes with Lewis substance are negative
D. anti-Leb cannot be confirmed because the saline control is positive
242. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this saliva neutralization testing?
Indicator cells Sample A B O
saliva plus anti-A + O O
saliva plus anti-B O + O
saliva plus anti-H O O O
a. group A secretor
A. group A secretor
B. group B secretor
C. group AB secretor
D. group O secretor
243. A person’s saliva incubated with the following antibodies and tested with appropriate A2, O, and B indicator cells, gives the following test results:
Antibody specificity Test results
anti-A reactive
anti-B inhibited
anti-H inhibited
The person’s red cells ABO phenotype is:
A. A
B. AB
C. B
D. O
244. An antibody screen performed using solid phase technology revealed a diffuse layer of red blood cells on the bottom of the well. These results indicate:
A. a positive reaction
B. a negative reaction
C. serum was not added
D. red cells have a positive direct antiglobulin test
245. On Monday, a patient’s K antigen typing result was positive. Two days later, the patient’s K typing was negative. The patient was transfused with 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. The tech might conclude that the:
A. transfusion of FFP affected the K typing
B. wrong patient was drawn
C. results are normal
D. anti-K reagent was omitted on Monday
246. Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?
A. RBCs typing as weak D+
B. presence of red cell autoantibody
C. decreased serum bilirubin
D. agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera
247. While performing an antibody screen, a test reaction is suspected to be rouleaux. A saline replacement test is performed and the reaction remains. What is the best interpretation?
A. original reaction of rouleaux is confirmed
B. replacement test is invalid and should be repeated
C. original reaction was due to true agglutination
D. antibody screen is negative
248. A 10-year old girl was hospitalized because her urine had a distinct red color. The patient had recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection and appeared very pale and lethargic. Tests were performed with the following results:
Test Result
hemoglobin 5g/dL
reticulocyte count 15%
DAT weak reactivity with poly-specific and anti-C3d, anti-IgG was negative
antibody screen negative
Donath-Lansteiner test positive; P cells showed no hemolysis
The patient probably has:
A. paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
B. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
C. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. hereditary erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum test (HEMPAS)
249. Which of the following is useful for removing IgG from red blood cells with positive DAT to perform a phenotype?
A. bromelin
B. chloroquine
C. LISS
D. DTT
250. A patient’s serum contains a mixture of antibodies. One of the antibodies is identified as anti-D. Anti-Jka, anti-Fya and possibly another antibody are present. What technique(s) may be helpful to identify the other antibody(ies)?
A. enzyme panel; select cell panel
B. thiol reagents
C. lowering the pH and increasing the incubation time
D. using albumin as an enhancement media in combination with selective absorption
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