Blood Banking MCQs:

These 300+ multiple-choice questions (MCQs) are designed to test your knowledge and understanding of various aspects of blood banking, a critical component of transfusion medicine. Blood banking involves the collection, processing, testing, storage, and distribution of blood and blood components to ensure their safe and effective use in medical treatments. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including blood typing, compatibility testing, transfusion reactions, blood component therapy, and the management of adverse events. By answering these questions, you will gain a deeper insight into the complexities and importance of blood banking in modern healthcare.

MCQ Test
251. A sample gives the following results:
Test Cells with Serum with
anti-A 3+ 2+
anti-B 4+ 0
Which lectin should be used first to resolve this discrepancy?
a. Ulex europaeus
b. Arachis hypogaea
c. Dolichos biflorus
d. Vicia graminea
252. The serum of group O, Cde/Cde does not contain anti-D. In order to prepare a suitable anti-D reagent from this donor’s serum, which of the following cells would be suitable for the adsorption?
a. group O, cde/cde cells
b. group O, Cde/cde cells
c. group A2B, CDe/cde cells
d. group A1B, cde/cde cells
253. A 26-year-old female is admitted with anemia of undetermined origin. Blood samples are received with a crossmatch request for 6 units of Red Blood Cells. The patient is group A, Rh-negative and has no history of transfusion or pregnancy. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
Test IS 370C IAT
screening cell I 0 0 3+
screening cell II 0 0 3+
autocontrol 0 0 3+
all 6 donors 0 0 3+
The best way to find compatible blood is to:
a. do an antibody identification panel
b. use the saline replacement technique
c. use the pre-warm technique
d. perform a warm autoadsorption
254. A patient’s serum was reactive 2+ in the antiglobulin phase of testing with all cells on a routine panel including their own. Transfusion was performed 6 months previously. The optimal adsorption method to remove the autoantibody is:
a. autoadsorption using the patient’s ZZAP-treated red cells
b. autoadsorption using the patient’s LISS-treated red cells
c. adsorption using enzyme-treated red cells from a normal donor
d. adsorption using methyldopa-treated red cells
255. In a cold autoadsorption procedure, pretreatment of the patient’s red cells with which of the following reagents is helpful?
a. ficin
b. phosphate-buffered saline at pH 9.0
c. low ionic strength solution (LISS)
d. albumin
256. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as:
a. diffusion
b. adsorption
c. neutralization
d. elution
257. Which of the following is most helpful to confirm a weak ABO subgroup?
a. adsorption-elution
b. neutralization
c. testing with A1 lectin
d. use of anti-A,B
258. One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:
a. 10% sucrose
b. LISS
c. change in pH
d. distilled water
259. How would the hematocrit of a patient with chronic anemia be affected by the transfusion of a unit of Whole Blood containing 475 mL of blood, vs 2 units of Red Blood Cells each with a total volume of 250 mL?
a. patient’s hematocrit would be equally affected by the Whole Blood or the Red Blood Cells
b. Red Blood Cells would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Whole Blood
c. Whole Blood would provide twice the increment in hematocrit as the Red Blood Cells
d. Whole Blood would provide a change in hematocrit slightly less than the Red Blood Cells
260. After checking the inventory, it was noted that there were no units on the shelf marked “May Issue as Uncrossmatched: For Emergency Only.” Which of the following should be placed on this shelf?
a. 1 unit of each of the ABO blood groups
b. units of group O, Rh-positive Whole Blood
c. units of group O, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
d. any units that are expiring at midnight
261. The primary indication for granulocyte transfusion is:
a. prophylactic treatment for infection
b. additional supportive therapy in those patients who are responsive to antibiotic therapy
c. clinical situations where bone marrow recovery is not anticipated
d. severe neutropenia with an infection that is nonresponsive to antibiotic therapy
262. A 42-year-old male of average body mass has a history of chronic anemia requiring transfusion support. Two units of Red Blood Cells are transfused. If the pretransfusion hemoglobin was 7.0g/dL (70g/L), the expected posttransfusion hemoglobin concentration should be:
a. 8.0g/dL (80g/L)
b. 9.0 g/dL (90g/L)
c. 10.0 g/dL (100g/L)
d. 11.0 g/dL (110g/L)
263. How many units of Red Blood Cells are required to raise the hematocrit of a 70kg nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
264. For which of the following transfusion candidates would CMV-seronegative blood be most likely indicated?
a. renal dialysis patients
b. sickle cell patient
c. bone marrow and hematopoietic cell transplant recipients
d. CMV-seropositive patients
265. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO incompatibility product may be administered when transfusing:
a. Single-Donor plasma
b. Cryoprecipitated AHF
c. Fresh Frozen Plasma
d. Granulocytes
266. Transfusion of plateletpheresis products from HLA-compatible donors is the preferred treatment for:
a. recently diagnosed cases of TTP with severe thrombocytopenia
b. acute leukemia in relapse with neutropenia and sepsis
c. immune thrombocytopenic purpura
d. severely thrombocytopenic patients, known to be refractory to random donor platelets
267. Washed Red Blood Cells are indicated in which of the following situations:
a. an IgA-deficient patient with a history of transfusion-associated anaphylaxis
b. a pregnant woman with a history of hemolytic disease of the newborn
c. a patient with a positive DAT and red cell autoantibody
d. a newborn with a hematocrit of <30%
268. Which of the following is consistent with standard blood bank procedure governing the infusion of fresh frozen plasma?
a. only blood group-specific plasma may be administered
b. group O may be administered to recipients of all blood groups
c. group AB may be administered to AB recipients only
d. group A may be administered to both A and O recipients
269. A patient who is group AB, Rh-negative needs 2 units of Fresh Frozen Plasma. Which of the following units of plasma would be most acceptable for transfusion?
a. group O, Rh-negative
b. group A, Rh-negative
c. group B, Rh-positive
d. group AB, Rh-positive
270. What increment of platelets/uL (platelets/L), in the typical 70-kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA-sensitized recipient?
a. 3,000-5,000
b. 5,000-10,000
c. 20,000-25,000
d. 25,000-30,000
271. Platelet transfusions are of most value in treating:
a. hemolytic transfusion reaction
b. post-transfusion purpura
c. functional platelet abnormalities
d. immune thrombocytopenic purpura
272. Washed Red Blood Cells would be the product of choice for patient with:
a. multiple red cell alloantibodies
b. an increased risk of hepatitis infection
c. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. anti-IgA antibodies
273. A patient received about 15mL of compatible blood and developed severe shock, but no fever. If the patient needs another transfusion, what kind of red blood cell component should be given?
a. Red Blood Cells
b. Red Blood Cells, washed
c. Red Blood Cells, Irradiated
d. Red Blood Cells, Leukocyte-Reduced
274. Fresh Frozen Plasma from a group A, Rh-positive donor may be safely transfused to a patient who is group:
a. A, Rh-negative
b. B, Rh-negative
c. AB, Rh-positive
d. AB, Rh-negative
275. A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). His blood donor card states that he is group AB, Rh-positive. Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
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