DHA exam preparation MLT mcq 4

Quiz Answers

Quiz Answers

  1. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is:
    • a. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    • b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    • c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) ✅
    • d. Alkaline phosphatase

  2. Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve:
    • a. Precision
    • b. Accuracy
    • c. Sensitivity
    • d. Specificity ✅

  3. The protein portion of an enzyme complex is called the:
    • a. Apoenzyme ✅
    • b. Coenzyme
    • c. Holoenzyme
    • d. Proenzyme

  4. Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
    • a. Lactic dehydrogenase (LD)
    • b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (ICD)
    • c. Acid phosphatase ✅
    • d. Alkaline phosphatase

  5. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following dyslipidemias?
    • a. Familial hypercholesterolemia
    • b. Hypertriglyceridemia
    • c. Deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity ✅
    • d. Familial hypoalphalipoprotein

  6. Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of:
    • a. Cholesterol
    • b. Total protein
    • c. Chylomicrons ✅
    • d. Albumin

  7. TSH is produced by the:
    • a. Hypothalamus
    • b. Pituitary gland ✅
    • c. Adrenal cortex
    • d. Thyroid

  8. The majority of thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone:
    • a. Thyroglobulin
    • b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
    • c. Triiodothyronine ✅
    • d. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone

  9. The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:
    • a. TSH level in the newborn
    • b. Thyroid-binding globulin level in the newborn
    • c. Iodine level in the newborn
    • d. Free thyroxine (T4) level in the newborn ✅

  10. Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
    • a. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
    • b. Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) ✅
    • c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    • d. Progesterone

  11. In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is:
    • a. Measurement of absorbance at 450 nm ✅
    • b. Creatinine
    • c. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
    • d. Estriol

  12. During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin levels peak at how many weeks after the last menstrual period?
    • a. 2-4
    • b. 8-10 ✅
    • c. 14-16
    • d. 18-20

  13. Which of the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
    • a. Angiotensinogen
    • b. Aldosterone ✅
    • c. Epinephrine
    • d. Growth hormone

  14. What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens?
    • a. Cortisol
    • b. Catecholamines
    • c. Progesterone
    • d. Cholesterol ✅

  15. The major action of angiotensin II is:
    • a. Increased pituitary secretion of vasopressin
    • b. Increased parathormone secretion by the parathyroid
    • c. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
    • d. Increased vasoconstriction ✅

  16. The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:
    • a. Dopamine
    • b. Dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
    • c. Homovanillic acid
    • d. Vanillymandelic acid (VMA) ✅

  17. Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?
    • a. Thyroxine
    • b. Estriol
    • c. Parathyroid hormone ✅
    • d. Growth hormone

  18. A diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency requires demonstration of:
    • a. Decreased urinary 17-keto and 17-hydroxysteroids
    • b. Decreased cortisol production
    • c. Impaired response to ACTH stimulation ✅
    • d. Increased urinary cortisol excretion after metyrapone

  19. The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest sensitivity and specificity is:
    • a. A 24-hour free cortisol ✅
    • b. Plasma cortisol
    • c. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroids
    • d. Plasma corticosterone

  20. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:
    • a. Renin
    • b. Angiotensinogen
    • c. Angiotensin I
    • d. Angiotensin II ✅

  21. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:
    • a. Screening for the presence of cancer
    • b. Monitoring the course of a known cancer ✅
    • c. Confirming the absence of disease
    • d. Identifying patients at risk for cancer

  22. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
    • a. Alpha-fetoprotein ✅
    • b. Carcinoembryonic antigen
    • c. Prolactin
    • d. Testosterone

  23. Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:
    • a. Hepatocellular carcinoma ✅
    • b. Alcoholic cirrhosis
    • c. Chronic active hepatitis
    • d. Multiple myeloma

  24. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the:
    • a. Brain
    • b. Testes
    • c. Colon ✅
    • d. Bone

  25. Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?
    • a. Total prostate-specific antigen ✅
    • b. Prostatic acid phosphatase
    • c. Human chorionic gonadotropin
    • d. Alpha-fetoprotein

  26. Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor markers?
    • a. Tumor markers are useful to screen asymptomatic patients for tumors
    • b. Tumor markers are highly specific
    • c. Tumor markers indicate the likelihood of an individual developing a tumor
    • d. Tumor markers are useful in tracking the efficacy of treatment ✅

  27. Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:
    • a. Breast carcinoma
    • b. Colon cancer
    • c. Lung cancer
    • d. Ovarian and endometrial carcinoma ✅

  28. In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:
    • a. Aspirin therapy
    • b. Exogenous steroid use
    • c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia ✅
    • d. Statin therapy (cholesterol-lowering drug)

  29. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone:
    • a. Hydrocortisone
    • b. Insulin ✅
    • c. Thyroxin
    • d. ACTH

  30. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody:
    • a. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
    • b. Is present in the serum
    • c. Is present in the blood cells
    • d. Is absent from the serum ✅

  31. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of:
    • a. Glucose
    • b. Uric acid
    • c. Ketone bodies ✅
    • d. Protein

  32. The major cation found in the extracellular fluid is:
    • a. Chloride
    • b. Bicarbonate
    • c. Sodium ✅
    • d. Potassium

  33. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
    • a. Levine
    • b. Landsteiner ✅
    • c. Weiner
    • d. Bernstein

  34. Safranin in a Gram stain is used as a:
    • a. Primary stain
    • b. Secondary stain ✅
    • c. Mordant
    • d. Decolorizer

  35. Antihuman serum globulin reagent:
    • a. Is produced in laboratory animals ✅
    • b. Is produced in humans
    • c. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
    • d. Occurs naturally in most humans

  36. Streptococcus pneumoniae:
    • a. Grows best at slightly acid pH
    • b. Is motile
    • c. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
    • d. Capsules are produced by virulent strains ✅

  37. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is:
    • a. Macrocytic
    • b. Microcytic
    • c. Aplastic
    • d. Hemolytic ✅

  38. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is:
    • a. Heparin
    • b. Protamine sulfate
    • c. Salicylate
    • d. Coumadin ✅

  39. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the:
    • a. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
    • b. Size of the particle being counted ✅
    • c. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
    • d. Value of the cell indices

  40. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be:
    • a. Hct and WBC
    • b. RBC and WBC ✅
    • c. RBC and Hgb
    • d. WBC and Hgb

  41. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals:
    • a. Hemolysis
    • b. A heavy buffy coat ✅
    • c. Icteric plasma
    • d. A high hematocrit

  42. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be:
    • a. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
    • b. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive ✅
    • c. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D) negative
    • d. Erythroblastotic

  43. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is:
    • a. 0.05 mL ✅
    • b. 0.10 mL
    • c. 0.15 mL
    • d. 0.02 mL

  44. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for:
    • a. Phagocytic neutrophils
    • b. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
    • c. Nasal secretion for eosinophiles ✅
    • d. Circulating eosinophiles

  45. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures:
    • a. The cell decreases in size ✅
    • b. There is no change in the cell’s size
    • c. The nucleus increases in size
    • d. The cell increases in size

  46. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being:
    • a. Packed with hemoglobin
    • b. Variable in shape
    • c. Markedly bluish in color ✅
    • d. Markedly pale in central color

  47. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
    • a. Refractive index
    • b. Osmolality ✅
    • c. Hydrometry
    • d. Specific gravity

  48. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counter instruments:
    • a. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes ✅
    • b. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
    • c. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
    • d. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes

  49. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is:
    • a. Schistosoma mansoni ✅
    • b. Schistosoma haematobium
    • c. Schistosoma japonicum
    • d. Schistosoma hepatica

  50. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on:
    • a. Serum only
    • b. Plasma only ✅
    • c. Either serum or plasma
    • d. Any body fluid

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