DHA exam preparation MLT mcq 4

Quiz Answers

Quiz Answers

  1. All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease except:
    • a. Hgb C crystals
    • b. Target cells
    • c. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the B-chain
    • d. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6 ✅

  2. Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6?
    • a. Hgb H
    • b. Hgb F
    • c. Hgb C ✅
    • d. Hgb S

  3. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?
    • a. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%
    • b. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2% ✅
    • c. Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%
    • d. Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%

  4. In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?
    • a. Thalassemia major
    • b. Hgb C disease
    • c. Hgb SC disease
    • d. Sickle cell disease ✅

  5. Which of the following is most true about paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
    • a. It is an acquired hemolytic anemia ✅
    • b. It is inherited as a sex-linked trait
    • c. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
    • d. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait

  6. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following except:
    • a. Hemorrhage
    • b. Thrombocytopenia
    • c. Hemoglobinuria
    • d. Reticulocytopenia ✅

  7. An autohemolysis test is positive in all the following areas except:
    • a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
    • b. Hereditary spherocytosis
    • c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
    • d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ✅

  8. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
    • a. Anti-I
    • b. Anti-i
    • c. Anti-M
    • d. Anti-P ✅

  9. All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:
    • a. Methemoglobinemia
    • b. Hemoglobinuria
    • c. Hemoglobinemia
    • d. Increased haptoglobin ✅

  10. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by which of the following?
    • a. Increased levels of plasma C3
    • b. Spherocytic red cells ✅
    • c. Decreased osmotic fragility
    • d. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin

  11. “Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:
    • a. Rh null trait
    • b. Chronic granulomatous disease
    • c. G6PD deficiency ✅
    • d. PK deficiency

  12. The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following:
    • a. M:E ratio
    • b. Prussian blue stain
    • c. RBC indices ✅
    • d. Reticulocyte count

  13. Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia?
    • a. A monoclonal disorder
    • b. Tumor infiltration
    • c. Peripheral blood pancytopenia ✅
    • d. Defective DNA synthesis

  14. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by:
    • a. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts ✅
    • b. Cytogenetic disorders
    • c. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
    • d. An elevated M:E ratio

  15. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
    • a. Target cells and cabot rings
    • b. Toxic granulation and Dohle bodies
    • c. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
    • d. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs ✅

  16. Which antibiotics are most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
    • a. Sulfonamides
    • b. Penicillin
    • c. Tetracycline
    • d. Chloramphenicol ✅

  17. Sickle cell disorders are:
    • a. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defect ✅
    • b. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defect
    • c. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
    • d. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects

  18. Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?
    • a. Pelger-Huet anomaly
    • b. Pernicious anemia
    • c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ✅
    • d. Sideroblastic anemia

  19. A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBC’s marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced polychromasia. In addition to a decreased Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated?
    • a. Reduced platelets
    • b. Increased MCHC
    • c. Increased MCV ✅
    • d. Decreased red cell distribution width (RDW)

  20. What red cell inclusions may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?
    • a. Toxic granulation
    • b. Howell-Jolly bodies ✅
    • c. Malarial parasite
    • d. Siderotic granules

  21. Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
    • a. Response to inflammation
    • b. Neoplastic process
    • c. Aplastic anemia
    • d. Red cell regeneration ✅

  22. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrane defect characterized by:
    • a. Increased pencil-shaped cells
    • b. Increased oval macrocytes
    • c. Misshapen budding fragmented cells ✅
    • d. Bite cells

  23. Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as glucose of:
    • a. A <_70 mg/dl (<_3.9 mmol/L)
    • b. B <_60 mg/dl (<3.3 mmol/L)
    • c. C <_55 mg/dl (<_3.0 mmol/L)
    • d. D <_45 mg/dl (<2.5 mmol/L) ✅

  24. The preparation of a patient for standard oral glucose tolerance testing should include:
    • a. A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days ✅
    • b. A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days
    • c. Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing
    • d. Bed rest for 3 days

  25. If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely represent normal glucose metabolism?
    • a. 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/L)
    • b. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L) ✅
    • c. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
    • d. 260 mg/dl (14.3 mmol/L)

  26. A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:
    • a. 25 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L)
    • b. 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L) ✅
    • c. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
    • d. 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)

  27. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:
    • a. Refrigerated
    • b. Analyzed immediately ✅
    • c. Heated to 56 degrees Celsius
    • d. Stored at room temperature

  28. Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?
    • a. 160 mg/dl (8.8 mmol/L)
    • b. 170 mg/dl (9.4 mmol/L)
    • c. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
    • d. 200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/L) ✅

  29. Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are:
    • a. The same as adults
    • b. Lower than adults ✅
    • c. The same as a normal full-term infant
    • d. Higher than a normal full-term infant

  30. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
    • a. Glycogenesis
    • b. Glycolysis ✅
    • c. Gluconeogenesis
    • d. Glycogenolysis

  31. Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test are diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
    • a. 2hr specimen= 150 mg/dl
    • b. Fasting plasma glucose= 126 mg/dl ✅
    • c. Fasting plasma glucose= 110 mg/dl
    • d. 2hr specimen = 180 mg/dl

  32. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of glucose concentration during the preceding:
    • a. 1-3 weeks
    • b. 4-5 weeks
    • c. 6-8 weeks ✅
    • d. 16-20 weeks

  33. Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:
    • a. Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose
    • b. Glucose tolerance testing
    • c. 2hr postprandial serum glucose
    • d. Hemoglobin A1c ✅

  34. The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
    • a. Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months ✅
    • b. Average blood glucose levels for the past week
    • c. Blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
    • d. Hemoglobin A1c level at the time the sample is drawn

  35. Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:
    • a. S
    • b. C
    • c. A2
    • d. A1c ✅

  36. A person with hemolytic anemia will:
    • a. Show a decrease in glycated hgb value ✅
    • b. Show an increase in glycated hgb value
    • c. Show little or no change in glycated hgb value
    • d. Demonstrate an elevated hgb A1

  37. In using ion-exchange chromatographic methods, falsely increased levels of hgb A1c might be demonstrated in the presence of:
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. Pernicious anemia
    • c. Thalassemias
    • d. Hgb S ✅

  38. An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:
    • a. Carbohydrates ✅
    • b. Fat
    • c. Urea nitrogen
    • d. Uric acid

  39. What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
    • a. H2 breath test ✅
    • b. Plasma adolase level
    • c. LDH level
    • d. D-xylose test

  40. The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of:
    • a. Metabolic acidosis ✅
    • b. Respiratory acidosis
    • c. Metabolic alkalosis
    • d. Respiratory alkalosis

  41. Severe diarrhea causes:
    • a. Metabolic acidosis ✅
    • b. Respiratory acidosis
    • c. Metabolic alkalosis
    • d. Respiratory alkalosis

  42. Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the:
    • a. Diffusion characteristics of the membrane ✅
    • b. Actual blood pO2
    • c. Type of calibrating standard (i.e., liquid or humidified gas)
    • d. Potential of the polarizing mercury cell

  43. An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic state?
    • a. Respiratory acidosis ✅
    • b. Respiratory alkalosis
    • c. Metabolic acidosis
    • d. Metabolic alkalosis

  44. At blood pH 7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?
    • a. 15:1
    • b. 20:1 ✅
    • c. 25:1
    • d. 30:1

  45. The reference range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degrees Celsius is:
    • a. 7.28-7.34
    • b. 7.33-7.37
    • c. 7.35-7.45 ✅
    • d. 7.45-7.50

  46. Metabolic acidosis is described as a (n):
    • a. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH ✅
    • b. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
    • c. Increase in CO2 with an increased pH
    • d. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH

  47. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
    • a. Vomiting
    • b. Starvation
    • c. Asthma
    • d. Hyperventilation ✅

  48. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:
    • a. Bohr effect
    • b. O2 content ✅
    • c. Bicarbonate buffer
    • d. Carbonic anhydrase

  49. Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:
    • a. IVP
    • b. Creatinine clearance
    • c. Osmolarity ✅
    • d. Microscopic urinalysis

  50. The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:
    • a. Urine creatine
    • b. Serum creatine
    • c. Creatinine clearance
    • d. Urine to serum osmolality ratio ✅

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