DHA exam preparation MLT mcq 4

Quiz Answers

Quiz Answers

  1. Osmolal gap is a difference between:
    • a. The ideal and real osmolality values
    • b. Calculated and measured osmolality values ✅
    • c. Plasma and water osmolality values
    • d. Molality and molarity at 4 degrees Celsius

  2. The most important buffer pair in plasma is the
    • a. Phosphate/biphosphate pair
    • b. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
    • c. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair ✅
    • d. Sulfate/bisulfate pair

  3. Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because:
    • a. Dilution is required for flame photometry
    • b. There is no lipoprotein interference
    • c. Of advances in electrochemistry ✅
    • d. Of the absence of an internal standard

  4. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:
    • a. Dissolved CO^2
    • b. Carbonate
    • c. Bicarbonate ion ✅
    • d. Carbonic acid

  5. Serum “anion gap” is increased in patients with:
    • a. Renal tubular acidosis
    • b. Diabetic alkalosis
    • c. Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
    • d. Lactic acidosis ✅

  6. The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
    • a. Amino acids and proteins
    • b. Blood gas analyses
    • c. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2 ✅
    • d. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium

  7. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
    • a. Sodium
    • b. Potassium
    • c. Calcium
    • d. Chloride ✅

  8. In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in:
    • a. Respiratory rate
    • b. Ammonia formation
    • c. Blood PCO2
    • d. Plasma bicarbonate concentration ✅

  9. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
    • a. Chloride
    • b. Calcium
    • c. Potassium
    • d. Sodium ✅

  10. The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
    • a. Glucose
    • b. Sodium ✅
    • c. Chloride
    • d. Urea

  11. Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
    • a. Whole blood specimens are acceptable ✅
    • b. Elevated lipids cause falsely decreased results
    • c. Elevated proteins cause falsely decreased results
    • d. Elevated platelets cause falsely increased results

  12. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
    • a. Elevated chloride levels
    • b. Elevated lipid levels ✅
    • c. Decreased protein levels
    • d. Decreased albumin levels

  13. Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound?
    • a. 80%-90%
    • b. 51%-60%
    • c. 40%-50% ✅
    • d. 10%-30%

  14. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
    • a. Insulin
    • b. Parathyroid hormone ✅
    • c. Thyroxine
    • d. Vitamin C

  15. The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?
    • a. Thyroid
    • b. Parathyroid ✅
    • c. Adrenal glands
    • d. Pituitary

  16. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests should be ordered immediately?
    • a. Calcium ✅
    • b. Phosphate
    • c. BUN
    • d. Glucose

  17. Which is the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause of tetany?
    • a. Magnesium ✅
    • b. Phosphate
    • c. Sodium
    • d. Vitamin

  18. A reciprocal relationship exists between:
    • a. Sodium and potassium
    • b. Calcium and phosphate ✅
    • c. Chloride and CO2
    • d. Calcium and magnesium

  19. Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
    • a. Pancreas
    • b. Skeleton
    • c. Parathyroid glands ✅
    • d. Small intestine

  20. A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in:
    • a. Patients who are receiving carbohydrate hyperalimentation ✅
    • b. Chronic renal disease
    • c. Hypoparathyroidism
    • d. Patients with pituitary tumors

  21. The primary function serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:
    • a. Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure ✅
    • b. Increase antibody production
    • c. Increase fibrinogen formation
    • d. Maintain blood viscosity

  22. The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:
    • a. Subculture the urine for bacteria
    • b. Add the appropriate preservative
    • c. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
    • d. Measure the total volume ✅

  23. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of:
    • a. Hemoglobin
    • b. Ceruloplasmin
    • c. Transferrin ✅
    • d. Ferritin

  24. The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is:
    • a. Direct reaction with appropriate chromagen
    • b. Iron saturation of transferrin
    • c. Free iron precipitation
    • d. Separation of iron from transferrin ✅

  25. A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:
    • a. Prolonged hypothermia
    • b. Renal functional impairment ✅
    • c. Pregnancy
    • d. Arrhythmia

  26. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
    • a. Tubular secretion of creatinine
    • b. Glomerular secretion of creatinine
    • c. Renal glomerular and tubular mass
    • d. Glomerular filtration rate ✅

  27. 90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
    • a. Transferrin
    • b. Ceruloplasmin ✅
    • c. Albumin
    • d. Cryoglobulin

  28. Hemoglobin S can be separated from hemoglobin D by:
    • a. Electrophoresis on a different medium and acidic pH ✅
    • b. Hemoglobin A2 quantitation
    • c. Electrophoresis at higher voltage
    • d. Kleihauer-Betke acid elution

  29. On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the slowest migrating hemoglobin?
    • a. Hgb A
    • b. Hgb S
    • c. Hgb C ✅
    • d. Hgb F

  30. Urobilinogen is formed in the:
    • a. Kidney
    • b. Spleen
    • c. Liver
    • d. Intestine ✅

  31. Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:
    • a. Heart tissue
    • b. Brain tissue ✅
    • c. Liver tissue
    • d. Kidney tissue

  32. A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the presence of:
    • a. Occult blood ✅
    • b. Fecal fat
    • c. Trypsin
    • d. Excess mucus

  33. The most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis is:
    • a. Acid phosphatase
    • b. Trypsin
    • c. Amylase
    • d. Lipase ✅

  34. Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
    • a. Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS) ✅
    • b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
    • c. 5′ -nucleotidase (5’N) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
    • d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and lactate dehydrogenase(LD)

  35. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
    • a. Malate dehydrogenase (MD)
    • b. Amylase (AMS) ✅
    • c. Creatine kinase (CK)
    • d. Isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)

  36. Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:
    • a. Liver ✅
    • b. Kidney
    • c. Intestine
    • d. Pancreas

  37. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the following diseases?
    • a. Muscular dystrophy
    • b. Viral hepatitis ✅
    • c. Pulmonary emboli
    • d. Infectious mononucleosis

  38. The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in which of the following?
    • a. Acute viral hepatitis
    • b. Primary biliary cirrhosis ✅
    • c. Metastatic hepatic cirrhosis
    • d. Alcoholic cirrhosis

  39. Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme 1?
    • a. Pneumonia
    • b. Glomerulonephritis
    • c. Pancreatitis
    • d. Pernicious anemia ✅

  40. The enzyme present in almost all tissues that may be separated by electrophoresis into 5 components is:
    • a. Lipase
    • b. Transaminase
    • c. Creatine kinase
    • d. Lactate dehydrogenase ✅

  41. A common cause of falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic dehydrogenase is:
    • a. Specimen hemolysis ✅
    • b. Liver disease
    • c. Congestive heart failure
    • d. Drug toxicity

  42. The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute myocardial damage?
    • a. CKMM
    • b. CKMB ✅
    • c. CKBB
    • d. None

  43. In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine kinase be found?
    • a. Acute myocardial infarct
    • b. Hepatitis ✅
    • c. Progressive muscular dystrophy
    • d. Intramuscular injection

  44. Of the following diseases, the one most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4 and 5 on electrophoresis is:
    • a. Liver disease ✅
    • b. Hemolytic anemia
    • c. Myocardial infarction
    • d. Pulmonary edema

  45. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:
    • a. CK ✅
    • b. LD
    • c. AST
    • d. ALT

  46. In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure:
    • a. M subunit is inactivated ✅
    • b. B subunit is inactivated
    • c. MB is inactivated
    • d. BB is inactivated

  47. The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient suffering from:
    • a. Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise
    • b. Malignant liver disease
    • c. Myocardial infarction ✅
    • d. Severe head injury

  48. Increased serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of fast fraction (1 and 2) on electrophoretic separation is caused by:
    • a. Nephrotic syndrome
    • b. Hemolytic anemia ✅
    • c. Pancreatitis
    • d. Hepatic damage

  49. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that originates in the:
    • a. Skeleton
    • b. Kidney
    • c. Intestine
    • d. Placenta ✅

  50. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:
    • a. Liver
    • b. Bone ✅
    • c. Intestine
    • d. Placenta

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