Quiz Answers
- A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBC are seen on the peripheral smear because:
- a. The WBC count would be falsely lower
- b. The RBC count is too low
- c. Nucleated RBC’s are counted as leukocytes ✅
- d. Nucleated RBC’s are confused with giant platelets
- Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
- a. Spherocytosis
- b. Anisocytosis ✅
- c. Leukocytosis
- d. Presence of NRBCs
- Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indices suggests spherocytosis?
- a. MCV 76 um^3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28%
- b. MCV 90 um^3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5%
- c. MCV 80 um^3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39% ✅
- d. MCV 81 um^3 MCH 29 pg MCHC 34%
- Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision?
- a. Mean
- b. Median
- c. Coefficient of variation ✅
- d. Standard deviation
- Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?
- a. Carboxyhemoglobin
- b. Methemoglobin
- c. Sulfhemoglobin
- d. Deoxyhemoglobin ✅
- Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
- a. Acidosis ✅
- b. Alkalosis
- c. Multiple blood transfusions
- d. Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C
- Which is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?
- a. Segmented neutrophil
- b. Lymphocyte ✅
- c. Monocyte
- d. Eosinophil
- What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?
- a. 20-50% ✅
- b. 10-20%
- c. 5-10%
- d. 50-70%
- In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
- a. 40-60 years
- b. 11-15 years
- c. 6 months – 2 years ✅
- d. 4-6 years
- Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be reviewed manually?
- a. Segs 70%
- b. Bands 6%
- c. Mono 15% ✅
- d. Eos 2%
- In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does Hgb formation begin?
- a. Reticulocyte
- b. Pronormoblast
- c. Basophilic normoblast
- d. Polychromatic normoblast ✅
- Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
- a. Increases in 2,3 DPG
- b. Acidosis
- c. Hypoxia
- d. All of the above ✅
- Which of the following Hgb configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
- a. Y^4
- b. A2-y2
- c. B4 ✅
- d. A2-b2
- Autoagglutination of red cells at room temp can result in which of the following?
- a. Low RBC count
- b. High MCV
- c. Low hematocrit
- d. All of the above ✅
- Antibodies are secreted by
- a. Killer cells
- b. Marrow stem cells
- c. Mast cells
- d. B cells ✅
- Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation found primarily in the
- a. Constant region of heavy chain ✅
- b. Constant region of light chain
- c. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
- d. Constant regions of heavy and light chains
- With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?
- a. IgA ✅
- b. IgD
- c. IgE
- d. IgG
- The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
- a. IgG
- b. IgE ✅
- c. IgM
- d. IgD
- The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
- a. IgA
- b. IgE
- c. IgG ✅
- d. IgM
- Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4. Macrophages
- a. 1, 2, & 3
- b. 1 & 3
- c. 4
- d. All of the above ✅
- IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum
- a. 1, 2, & 3
- b. 1 & 3
- c. 4
- d. All ✅
- The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:
- a. IgA
- b. IgM
- c. IgD
- d. IgE ✅
- Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?
- a. IgG
- b. IgA
- c. IgM ✅
- d. IgE
- All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:
- a. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b ✅
- b. Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b
- c. Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b
- d. Release of anaphylatoxins
- Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
- a. Monocyte
- b. Neutrophil ✅
- c. Basophil
- d. Eosinophil
- The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is
- a. Sensitization
- b. Precipitation ✅
- c. Agglutination
- d. Opsonization
- While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next 4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:
- a. Prozone phenomenon ✅
- b. Antigen excess
- c. Equivalence
- d. Postzone phenomenon
- A substrate is first exposed to patient’s serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The procedure described is:
- a. Fluorescent quenching
- b. Direct fluorescence
- c. Indirect fluorescence ✅
- d. Fluorescence inhibition
- Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large particles formed by the reactants.
- a. 1 2 and 3 ✅
- b. 1 and 3
- c. 4
- d. All
- A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.
- a. Inhibition
- b. Competitive
- c. Double antibody
- d. Indirect ✅
- If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard reagent would be:
- a. 1:2
- b. 1:3
- c. 1:4 ✅
- d. 3:1
- e. 4:1
- The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against which subunit of HCG?
- a. Alpha
- b. Gamma
- c. Chorionic
- d. Beta ✅
- Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical competitive binding immunoassay:
- a. Directly proportional
- b. Indirectly proportional ✅
- c. Relative
- d. Non-specific
- A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:
- a. FTA-ABS
- b. RPR ✅
- c. MHA-TP
- d. TPI
- An important use of non-treponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:
- a. Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
- b. Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
- c. Evaluating the success of therapy ✅
- d. Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population
- The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is
- a. Non-treponemal antibody
- b. CSF-VDRL ✅
- c. FTA-ABS
- d. MHA-TP
- In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is used?
- a. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre ✅
- b. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash
- c. Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies
- d. Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ
- The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:
- a. IgG antibody
- b. IgA antibody
- c. IgM antibody ✅
- d. Both IgG and IgA antibody
- A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she had cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are likely to be observed in this nurse?
- a. A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test
- b. Elevated AST and ALT activities ✅
- c. A positive rheumatoid factor
- d. A positive Monospot test
- The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is called:
- a. Hypersensitivity
- b. Arthus reaction
- c. Anamestic response ✅
- d. Primary response
- The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
- a. HBs
- b. Hbe ✅
- c. HBc
- d. HBV
- Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?
- a. HAV
- b. HBV
- c. HCV ✅
- d. HDV
- Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular cancer?
- a. Carcinoembryonic antigen
- b. Prolactin
- c. Testosterone
- d. 17-ketosteroids
- e. Alpha-fetoprotein ✅
- When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?
- a. Radioimmunoassay
- b. Western blot ✅
- c. Immunofluorescence
- d. ELISA
- A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:
- a. The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature
- b. The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity
- c. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation ✅
- d. Adult human O red cells are used in the assay
- The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with
- a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- b. Legionella pneumophilia
- c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✅
- d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient’s own:
- a. IgG ✅
- b. IgA
- c. IgE
- d. IgM
- The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:
- a. An antigen
- b. An antibody ✅
- c. A virus
- d. Bacterial cells
- Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low concentration of TSH?
- a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
- b. Graves’ Disease ✅
- c. Hashimoto’s Disease
- d. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
- The Rheumatoid Factor:
- a. Agglutinates inert substance
- b. Precipitates inert substance
- c. Hemolyzes red blood cells
- d. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance ✅
