Quiz Answers

Quiz Answers

  1. The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
    • a. staphylococcus
    • b. haemophilus ✔
    • c. brucella
    • d. salmonella

  2. RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
    • a. AIDs
    • b. Hepatitis
    • c. Syphilis ✔
    • d. Malaria

  3. All the following are examples of blood parasites except
    • a. Plasmodium
    • b. Brugia malayi
    • c. Leishmania
    • d. Giardia lamblia ✔

  4. The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
    • a. Carnoy’s fluid ✔
    • b. 95% ethyl alcohol
    • c. 10% formalin
    • d. Zenker’s fluid

  5. Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
    • a. Pap stain
    • b. Shorrs stain ✔
    • c. H & E stain
    • d. JSB stain

  6. The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
    • a. accuracy
    • b. Sensitivity
    • c. precision ✔
    • d. specificity

  7. ‘Mycology’ means the study of
    • a. bacteria
    • b. immunity
    • c. parasites
    • d. fungus ✔

  8. Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
    • a. iatrogenic ✔
    • b. nosocomial
    • c. congenital
    • d. subclinical

  9. The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
    • a. acid phosphatase
    • b. amylase ✔
    • c. alkaline phosphatase
    • d. creatinine kinase

  10. The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
    • a. cosin
    • b. malachite green
    • c. methelene blue ✔
    • d. none of the above

  11. Name the blood cells increased in asthma
    • a. basophil
    • b. neutrophil
    • c. lymphocyte
    • d. cosinophil ✔

  12. Intermediate host of plasmodium is
    • a. man ✔
    • b. female anopheles mosquito
    • c. male anopheles mosquito
    • d. none of the above

  13. Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
    • a. Leishmans stain
    • b. Giemsas stain
    • c. Jenners stain
    • d. All the above ✔

  14. In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
    • a. 2 : 3
    • b. 3 : 2 ✔
    • c. 1 : 4
    • d. 2 : 1

  15. The anticoagulant used in OFT is
    • a. EDTA
    • b. Citrate
    • c. Heparin ✔
    • d. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture

  16. The bacteria showing swarming growth is
    • a. E.coli
    • b. Salmonella
    • c. Proteus ✔
    • d. All the above

  17. To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
    • a. KOH ✔
    • b. NH_4OH
    • c. INHCl
    • d. 3% acetic acid

  18. Incomplete antibodies are detected using
    • a. Electrophoresis
    • b. Coombs test ✔
    • c. Agglutination test
    • d. VDRL test

  19. Causes spurious decrease in MCV
    • a. Cryofibrinogen ✔
    • b. hyperglycemia
    • c. autoaggutination
    • d. high WBC ct
    • e. reduced red cell deformability

  20. When the entire CBC is suppressed due to either anemia, infection, or hemorrhage is called?
    • a. Erythroplasia
    • b. Thrombocytopenia
    • c. Pancytopenia ✔
    • d. Leukopenia

  21. Total RBC count for Women is?
    • a. 4.4-6
    • b. 4.2-5
    • c. 4.0-5.0 ✔
    • d. 4.2-5.2

  22. Total RBC for men?
    • a. 4.0-5.0
    • b. 4.6-6.0 ✔
    • c. 4.2-6.5
    • d. 4.0-6.0

  23. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    • a. Hemosiderin
    • b. Ferritin ✔
    • c. Transferrin
    • d. Hemoglobin

  24. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year old would be:
    • a. Iliac Crest (hip) ✔
    • b. Femur (thigh)
    • c. Distal radius (forearm)
    • d. Tibia (shin)

  25. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Determination of relative size of RBC. 82-98 f1
    • a. MCH
    • b. MCV ✔
    • c. MCHC
    • d. PCV

  26. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Measurement of average weight of Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg
    • a. MCH
    • b. MCV ✔
    • c. MCHC
    • d. PCV

  27. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb. 32-36%
    • a. MCV
    • b. MCH
    • c. MCHC ✔
    • d. PCV

  28. There are 3 classifications of Anemia. What are they?
    • a. In adequate production of Hb ✔
    • b. Decreased RBC production
    • c. Increased Erythrocyte destruction
    • d. Blood loss

  29. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    • a. Hemosiderin
    • b. Ferritin ✔
    • c. Transferrin
    • d. Hemoglobin

  30. Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anemia
    • a. True
    • b. False ✔
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  31. Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin production and decreases reticulocyte cells.
    • a. True ✔
    • b. False
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  32. Hydroxyurea:
    • a. decreases nitric oxide
    • b. increases neutrophil and monocytes
    • c. inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as aribonucleotide reductase inhibitor ✔
    • d. none

  33. Hydroxyurea icreases thhe serum uric acid levels.
    • a. True ✔
    • b. False
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  34. Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
    • a. True
    • b. False ✔
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  35. Hypocupremia is seen in
    • a. osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
    • b. sprue, cliac disease
    • c. cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
    • d. A andB
    • e. B and C
    • f. All of the above ✔

  36. Wilsons disease can cause liver problems
    • a. True ✔
    • b. False
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  37. What are the treatment options for wilson’s disease?
    • a. A. Pencillamine
    • b. B. Riboflavin
    • c. C. Trientine
    • d. D. Potassium disulfide
    • e. E. Zinc
    • f. A, B and C
    • g. A, C, and D
    • h. A, C, D, and E ✔

  38. Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
    • a. True ✔
    • b. False
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  39. Angular stomatitis. cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
    • a. True
    • b. False ✔
    • c. Both
    • d. none

  40. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    • a. Hemosiderin
    • b. Ferritin ✔
    • c. Transferrin
    • d. Hemoglobin

  41. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia?
    • a. Coombs test ✔
    • b. Genetic testing
    • c. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
    • d. Schilling test

  42. Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of a inherited cause.
    • a. Iron deficiency anemia
    • b. hypochromic anemia ✔
    • c. aplastic anemia

  43. What is normal fasting Blood sugar,
    • a. 100-200
    • b. 70-110 ✔
    • c. 90_120
    • d. None

  44. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood circulation
    • a. thromboembolism
    • b. DVT
    • c. PAD
    • d. Pulmonary embolism
    • e. All of the above ✔

  45. Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
    • a. True ✔
    • b. False
    • c. None

  46. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take
    • a. Sulfinpyrazone
    • b. Clopidogrel
    • c. Ticlopidine
    • d. 1 and 2
    • e. 2 and 3 ✔

  47. What is the life span of RBC
    • a. 120 ✔
    • b. 100
    • c. 200
    • d. 80

  48. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
    • a. Hemosiderin
    • b. Ferritin ✔
    • c. Transferrin
    • d. Hemoglobin

  49. The most common type of protein found in the cell membrane is:
    • a. Lipoprotein
    • b. Mucoprotein
    • c. Glycoprotein ✔
    • d. Nucleoprotein

  50. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
    • a. IL-1 ✔
    • b. IL-2
    • c. IL-3
    • d. IL-4

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