Quiz Answers

Quiz Answers

  1. Type I hypersensitivity includes all of the following except:
    • a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ✅
    • b. Anaphylaxis
    • c. Extrinsic asthma
    • d. Hay fever

  2. A positive tuberculin test is an example of:
    • a. Type I hypersensitivity
    • b. Type II hypersensitivity
    • c. Type III hypersensitivity
    • d. Type IV hypersensitivity ✅

  3. Application of skin graft for the second time from the same donor will result in:
    • a. First set rejection
    • b. Second set rejection ✅
    • c. Both
    • d. None

  4. Transplantation between members with the same genetic constitution is known as:
    • a. Autograft
    • b. Isograft ✅
    • c. Allograft
    • d. Xenograft

  5. All of the following are live-attenuated vaccines except:
    • a. MMR
    • b. Yellow fever 17D vaccine
    • c. Salk polio vaccine ✅
    • d. Sabin polio vaccine

  6. Amphitrichous flagella means
    • a. Flagella all-round the cell
    • b. Flagella at both ends ✅
    • c. Flagella at one end
    • d. Flagella in tufts

  7. When Flagella is present all around the cell, it is called
    • a. Amphitrichous
    • b. Monotrichous
    • c. Peritrichous ✅
    • d. Lopotrichous

  8. India ink is used to demonstrate the following part of bacteria
    • a. Cell wall
    • b. Nucleus
    • c. Capsule ✅
    • d. Flagella

  9. Reflected light is used in
    • a. Light microscope
    • b. Phase contrast microscope
    • c. Darkfield microscope ✅
    • d. Electron microscope

  10. Bacteria that grow between 25 to 40°C are
    • a. Capnophilic
    • b. Psychrophilic
    • c. Thermophilic
    • d. Mesophilic ✅

  11. Shape of cocci
    • a. Rod
    • b. Spherical ✅
    • c. Comma
    • d. Spiral

  12. Best way of sterilizing disposable plastic syringes is:
    • a. UV rays
    • b. Autoclave
    • c. Gamma rays ✅
    • d. Hot air oven

  13. The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV-contaminated endoscope is (MAH19)
    • a. 1% sodium hypochlorite
    • b. 2% glutaraldehyde ✅
    • c. 5% phenol
    • d. 70% ethanol

  14. Flexible fiber optic endoscopes are sterilized by
    • a. Autoclave
    • b. Cetrimide
    • c. 2% glutaraldehyde ✅
    • d. Gamma-radiation

  15. Which of the following organisms can survive pasteurization by the Holder method?
    • a. Mycobacterium
    • b. Brucella
    • c. Coxiella burnetii ✅
    • d. Salmonella

  16. Temperature and duration for the flash process of Pasteurization
    • a. 77°C for 20 seconds ✅
    • b. 100°C for 20 seconds
    • c. 63°C for 20 seconds
    • d. 63°C for 30 minutes

  17. Sterilization of heat-labile media is done by
    • a. Filtration
    • b. Pasteurization
    • c. Autoclaving
    • d. Tyndalization ✅

  18. Immunoglobulin that is inactivated at high temperature
    • a. IgG
    • b. IgA
    • c. IgM
    • d. IgE ✅

  19. Immunoglobulins are
    • a. Glycolipids
    • b. Glycoproteins ✅
    • c. Polypeptides
    • d. Proteoglycans

  20. Exotoxins are usually
    • a. Protein ✅
    • b. Heat labile
    • c. More antigenic
    • d. Non-enzymatic

  21. True about exotoxins
    • a. Produced only by gram-positive bacteria
    • b. Neutralized by antitoxin ✅
    • c. Less potent than endotoxin
    • d. Pyrogenic

  22. The function of an adjuvant in a vaccine is to enhance its:
    • a. Distribution
    • b. Immunogenicity ✅
    • c. Absorption
    • d. Shelf life

  23. The Immunity resulting in the infant, as a result of immunization of a pregnant woman with tetanus toxoid, is called
    • a. Innate immunity
    • b. Natural active immunity
    • c. Artificial active immunity
    • d. Natural passive immunity ✅

  24. Anti-D given to an Rh-negative pregnant woman with an Rh-positive fetus, before delivery, is an example of
    • a. Artificial active immunity
    • b. Artificial passive immunity ✅
    • c. Natural passive immunity
    • d. Adoptive immunity

  25. Gram-positive bacteria which is usually sensitive to penicillin is
    • a. Staphylococcus aureus
    • b. Enterococcus faecalis
    • c. Streptococcus pyogenes ✅
    • d. Staphylococcus epidermidis

  26. Streptococcus causing neonatal meningitis
    • a. Group-A
    • b. Group-B ✅
    • c. Group-C
    • d. Group-D

  27. Which of the following gram-positive bacteria is responsible for food poisoning?
    • a. Mycoplasmas
    • b. Pseudomonas
    • c. Clostridia ✅
    • d. All of the above

  28. Methicillin-resistant bacteria are
    • a. Streptococci
    • b. Pseudomonas
    • c. Haemophilus
    • d. Staphylococci ✅

  29. The organism causing UTI in sexually active women
    • a. Staphylococcus aureus
    • b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    • c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus ✅
    • d. Streptococcus viridians

  30. Antibiotic used in Toxic shock syndrome
    • a. Vancomycin
    • b. Cephalosporins
    • c. Streptomycin
    • d. Clindamycin ✅

  31. Grave’s disease belongs to
    • a. Type I hypersensitivity
    • b. Type II hypersensitivity ✅
    • c. Type III hypersensitivity
    • d. Type IV hypersensitivity

  32. Type of hypersensitivity involved in Rh incompatibility
    • a. Type I hypersensitivity
    • b. Type II hypersensitivity ✅
    • c. Type III hypersensitivity
    • d. Type IV hypersensitivity

  33. Chemically, an antigen may be
    • a. Lipid
    • b. Polysaccharide
    • c. Protein
    • d. Any of the above ✅

  34. Example of cell-mediated hypersensitivity
    • a. Transfusion reactions
    • b. Arthus reactions
    • c. Type II lepra reaction
    • d. Tuberculin test ✅

  35. Tuberculin test is an example of
    • a. Type I hypersensitivity
    • b. Type II hypersensitivity
    • c. Type III hypersensitivity
    • d. Type IV hypersensitivity ✅

  36. Organism that has considerable resistance to antiseptics, disinfectants, and antibiotics
    • a. E. coli ✅
    • b. Pseudomonas
    • c. Staphylococci
    • d. Streptococci

  37. Endocarditis in a patient with colon cancer is caused by
    • a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    • b. Streptococcus bovis ✅
    • c. Streptococcus sanguis
    • d. Streptococcus mutans

  38. Which is a lactose fermenter?
    • a. Pseudomonas
    • b. Salmonella
    • c. Klebsiella ✅
    • d. Shigella

  39. Rice water stool is associated with? DNB 2015
    • a. Cholera ✅
    • b. Bacillary dysentery
    • c. Salmonella infection
    • d. Pseudomembranous colitis

  40. Bacteria associated with dental caries
    • a. Streptococcus mutans ✅
    • b. Streptococcus pyogenes
    • c. Streptococcus faecalis
    • d. Streptococcus agalactiae

  41. Dose of human tetanus Ig for post-exposure prophylaxis
    • a. 250-500 units ✅
    • b. 500-750 units
    • c. 750-1000 units
    • d. 1000-1200 units

  42. Most important cause of traveler’s diarrhea is
    • a. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli ✅
    • b. Enteroinvasive E. coli
    • c. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
    • d. Enteropathogenic E. coli

  43. Smallest virus is:
    • a. Pox virus
    • b. Herpes virus
    • c. Parvo virus ✅
    • d. Adeno virus

  44. Incubation period of measles
    • a. 1-2 days
    • b. 3-6 days
    • c. 1-7 days
    • d. 9-11 days ✅

  45. Dengue is caused by
    • a. Alphavirus
    • b. Bunyavirus
    • c. Flavivirus ✅
    • d. Hantavirus

  46. Yellow fever is caused by
    • a. Flavivirus ✅
    • b. Alphavirus
    • c. Calcivirus
    • d. Bunyavirus

  47. Infective period of Aedes mosquitoes in dengue
    • a. 1-2 days
    • b. 8-10 days
    • c. Till next bite
    • d. Till death ✅

  48. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
    • a. Louse
    • b. Trombiculid mite
    • c. Rat fles
    • d. Soft tick

  49. Tinea pedis is caused by
    • a. E floccosum
    • b. T rubrum
    • c. Microsporum ✅
    • d. T schoenleinii

  50. Tinea pedis is seen among
    • a. People of cold countries
    • b. Those wearing socks and shoes ✅
    • c. Those walking barefoot
    • d. Hospitalized people

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