MCQ Test
201. To be an antigen, the chemical molecule (protein) needs:
A. High molecular weight
B. Chemical complexity
C. High MW and chemical complexity
D. Nucleic acid
202. The immunity acquired by inoculation of living organism of attenuated virulence is:
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Local immunity
203. Fluid extruded from clotted blood is known as ____.
A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Buffy coat
D. Lymph
204. Which PRR recognizes distinct molecular structures, abundant to many cells and there are ten in humans?
A. Nod-like receptors
B. RIG-like receptors
C. Toll-like receptors
D. PAMP of neutrophils
205. A signaling molecule from microbes recognized by phagocytes is:
A. Complement
B. PAMP
C. Pyrogen
D. Lectin
206. Which of the following is NOT produced by phagocytes?
A. Hydroxyl radical
B. Superoxide anion
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Bradykinin
207. Acquired / adaptive immune cells include?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Neutrophils
208. Reproduction in bacteria occurs by:
A. Budding
B. Bursting
C. Binary Fission
D. Fragmentation
209. Bacteria eating viruses are known as:
A. Phagocytes
B. Viricides
C. Prophages
D. Bacteriophages
210. Which of the following is Gram-positive bacteria?
A. Staphylococcus
B. E. coli
C. Salmonella
D. Pseudomonas
211. In plasmid DNA isolation, ____________ is used to neutralize the solution, enabling DNA to renature.
A. NaCl
B. Potassium acetate
C. Acetic acid
D. All of these
212. In genomic DNA isolation, disruption of nucleoproteins and degradation of proteins is carried out by:
A. SDS
B. Proteinase K
C. Isopropanol
D. Alcohol
213. “Cryptococcus” is transmitted in form of:
A. Endospores
B. Yeast
C. Conidia
D. Spores
214. Selective media for TB bacilli is:
A. NNN media
B. Lowenstein–Jensen (LJ) medium
C. Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
D. MacConkey media
215. Widal test is used for:
A. Typhoid fever
B. Salmonella
C. Brucellosis
D. All of these
216. Cell wall of 'fungi' is made up of:
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Murine
C. Chitin
D. Cellulose
217. Ascoli’s test helps to confirm lab diagnosis of ____.
A. Tetanus
B. Anthrax
C. Typhoid
D. Cholera
218. Transfection is insertion of DNA into ______ cells.
A. Bacterial
B. Eukaryotic
C. Viruses
D. Both “A” and “B”
219. In agarose gel electrophoresis, loading buffer gives __________ to sample.
A. Color
B. Density
C. Shade
D. Color and density
220. The virulence factor of botulism is a/an______.
A. Endotoxin
B. Exotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
D. Hemolytic toxin
221. Specific immunity develops only after exposure to a specific pathogen is known as:
A. Innate immunity
B. Adaptive immunity
C. Acquired immunity
D. Natural immunity
222. Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) molecules function to:
A. Present antigens to T cells
B. Activate B cells
C. Stimulate phagocytosis
D. Produce antibodies
223. The vaccine for hepatitis B is made from:
A. Live attenuated virus
B. Inactivated virus
C. Recombinant surface antigen
D. Whole virus
224. The T cell receptor (TCR) recognizes:
A. Free-floating antigens
B. Antigens presented by MHC molecules
C. Pathogen-associated molecular patterns
D. Antibodies
225. An antibody's specificity is determined by:
A. The constant region
B. The variable region
C. The Fc region
D. The heavy chain
226. Which type of immunity is transferred from mother to fetus through the placenta?
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Artificial immunity
D. Cell-mediated immunity
227. The primary purpose of vaccination is to:
A. Cause disease
B. Create herd immunity
C. Stimulate an immune response
D. Increase pathogen spread
228. Immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta is:
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgG
229. Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in mucosal areas?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
230. The most abundant type of antibody in human serum is:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgG
231. The process by which B cells develop into plasma cells is called:
A. Clonal selection
B. Somatic recombination
C. Antigen processing
D. Antigen presentation
232. Antibodies function primarily by:
A. Destroying pathogens
B. Neutralizing toxins
C. Marking pathogens for destruction
D. All of these
233. A hypersensitivity reaction that occurs within minutes of exposure to an antigen is:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
234. Which type of T cell is responsible for killing infected host cells?
A. Helper T cells
B. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Regulatory T cells
D. Memory T cells
235. The immune response that results from exposure to a pathogen is:
A. Innate immunity
B. Adaptive immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. None of these
236. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the innate immune response?
A. Rapid response
B. Specificity
C. No memory
D. Activation of phagocytes
237. The first line of defense in the immune system is:
A. Skin and mucous membranes
B. Phagocytes
C. Antibodies
D. T lymphocytes
238. Which of the following is an example of a mechanical barrier in innate immunity?
A. Mucus
B. Skin
C. Antibodies
D. Phagocytes
239. The term used to describe the ability of the body to recognize and defend itself against specific pathogens is:
A. Immunity
B. Infection
C. Disease
D. Inflammation
240. A reaction that occurs when the immune system attacks its own cells is called:
A. Autoimmunity
B. Immunodeficiency
C. Allergy
D. Allergen
241. What type of pathogen causes malaria?
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Protozoa
D. Fungi
242. The antibiotic penicillin targets:
A. Cell wall synthesis
B. Protein synthesis
C. DNA replication
D. RNA synthesis
243. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of antibiotic resistance?
A. Enzymatic degradation of the antibiotic
B. Alteration of the antibiotic's target site
C. Increased absorption of the antibiotic
D. Efflux pumps
244. Which type of mutation changes a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence?
A. Frameshift mutation
B. Substitution mutation
C. Deletion mutation
D. Insertion mutation
245. The part of the immune system that involves antibodies is:
A. Cell-mediated immunity
B. Humoral immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Complement system
246. Which of the following is a common sign of infection?
A. Fever
B. Dehydration
C. Hypothermia
D. Hyperglycemia
247. What is the primary function of macrophages in the immune response?
A. Produce antibodies
B. Phagocytosis
C. Activate T cells
D. Recruit neutrophils
248. Which of the following is a function of the complement system?
A. Opsonization of pathogens
B. Antibody production
C. Direct killing of pathogens
D. Both A and C
249. Which of the following types of immunity is acquired through vaccination?
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Herd immunity
250. The primary immune response occurs:
A. After the first exposure to an antigen
B. After subsequent exposures to an antigen
C. Immediately after exposure to a pathogen
D. Within hours of infection
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