MCQ Test
1. The following test is used to differentiate Streptococcus from Staphylococcus:
A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Phosphatase
D. Indole test
2. Jumping gene is known as:
A. Transposon
B. Episome
C. Cosmid
D. Plasmid
3. Staphylococcus bacteria secrete all, EXCEPT:
A. Lipase
B. Cellulase
C. Coagulase
D. Lecithinase
4. Quellung reaction is due to ________ swelling.
A. Capsular
B. Flagellar
C. RBC
D. Ribosomal
5. Gram negative cocci is:
A. Staphylococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Salmonella
6. Medusa head colony is found in:
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Pseudomonas
D. E. coli
7. All of the following are acid fast bacteria EXCEPT:
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Mycobacterium
D. Nocardia
8. Widal test is an example of:
A. Flocculation
B. Precipitation
C. Agglutination
D. Both “A” and “B”
9. Genome of Herpes Simplex Virus comprises of:
A. ssDNA
B. dsDNA
C. ssRNA
D. dsRNA
10. All of the following methods are used for serological diagnosis, EXCEPT:
A. CFT
B. PCR
C. SRH
D. Western blot
11. Which of the following virus is not associated with respiratory infections?
A. Rotavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Influenza virus
D. RSV
12. HCV belongs to genus:
A. Togavirus
B. Flavivirus
C. Filovirus
D. Retrovirus
13. Aflatoxin is produced by:
A. Candida
B. Penicillium
C. Aspergillus flavus
D. Clostridium
14. HIV infects most commonly:
A. CD4+ cells
B. CD8+ cells
C. B-lymphocytes
D. Basophils
15. Which one is an essential part of life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Human
D. Sheep
16. Cell mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
17. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
A. Agglutination
B. Phagocytosis
C. Immunological memory
D. Clonal deletion
18. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______.
A. Agglutination
B. Precipitation
C. Flocculation
D. CFT
19. Preliminary screening can be done by:
A. restriction enzyme
B. dyes
C. antibiotics
D. radiation
20. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. Langerhans cells
21. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic determinants of a disease?
A. Specie
B. Environment
C. Genetics
D. Both “A” and “B”
22. Which of the following substance can only induce immune response after binding to a larger molecule?
A. Antigen
B. Virus
C. Hapten
D. Antibody
MCQ Test
23. To identify participants based on their disease / outcome status, compare presence of risk factor:
A. Case-control
B. Experimental
C. Cross-sectional
D. None of these
24. ___ is an example of arthropod vector borne disease?
A. Avian influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Spirochetosis
D. CRD
25. Latent infection is seen in viral infections EXCEPT:
A. HIV
B. EBV
C. Rotavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
26. Endotoxin for Gram-negative organism is:
A. Polysaccharide
B. Glycoprotein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Lipopolysaccharide
27. Which of the following is not an oncogenic virus?
A. HTLV-1
B. Adenovirus
C. Papilloma virus
D. HBV
28. Which of the following is obligate anaerobe?
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Klebsiella
29. ______ refers only to the number of new cases of a disease occurring in a given period.
A. % positivity
B. Prevalence
C. Hyperendemic
D. Incidence
30. Fungi that possess a capsule is:
A. Candida
B. Aspergillus
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mucor
31. The dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested under standard called_______.
A. ID50
B. MLD50
C. TCIC50
D. LD50
32. All are used in Gram’s staining, EXCEPT:
A. Methylene blue
B. Iodine
C. Safranin
D. Crystal violet
33. Viruses do not contain:
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Enzyme
D. Cell wall
34. ________ is chain forming, & round shaped bacteria.
A. Pneumococcus
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Diplococcus
35. All the following can be zoonotic EXCEPT:
A. Influenza A H5N1
B. Hantaviruses
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Rabies
36. Presence of maternal Abs ____ the effect of vaccine.
A. Antagonize
B. Enhance
C. Synergize
D. Complement
37. A diagnostic test lacking in ________ results in false positive results.
A. Specificity
B. Predictive value
C. Sensitivity
D. Reproducibility
38. Which one of the following is NOT included in innate immune response?
A. phagocytosis
B. complement activation
C. antibodies production
D. NK cells activation
39. Viruses are:
A. Obligate intracellular parasites
B. Have their own metabolism
C. Divide by binary fission
D. Have both DNA and RNA
40. The vector of plague is:
A. Flies
B. Mosquitoes
C. Ticks
D. Fleas
41. Positive tuberculin test is an example of:
A. hypersensitivity type-I
B. hypersensitivity type-II
C. hypersensitivity type-III
D. hypersensitivity type-IV
42. Process of binding primer to DNA template is called:
A. Denaturation
B. Annealing
C. Extension
D. Bounding
43. _________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA.
A. Isopropanol
B. SDS
C. Phenol
D. Chloroform
44. _________ enzyme is used to synthesize DNA using an mRNA template.
A. Taq polymerase
B. Alkaline Phosphatase
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Nuclease
45. Making routine observations on health, productivity & environment is called as:
A. GIS
B. Monitoring
C. Surveillance
D. Cohort studies
46. _____ disease is transmitted from parrot to human.
A. Typhoid
B. Bird flu
C. Psittacosis
D. Chol era
47. The ability of the immune system to recognize self-antigens versus non-self-antigen is an example of:
A. Specific immunity
B. Humoral immunity
C. Cell mediated immunity
D. Tolerance
48. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus from:
A. Streptococci
B. Micrococci
C. Enterococci
D. other staphylococci
49. All are antigen-antibody interaction in living host EXCEPT:
A. Neutralization
B. Precipitation
C. Opsonization
D. Agglutination
50. Which of the following is a type of leukocytes and are included in agranulocytes?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Monocytes
D. Eosinophils
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