MCQ Test
51. Which one is NOT protective mechanism of body:
A. Fever
B. Necrosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Inflammation
52. Bioterrorism microbial agents are classified based upon:
A. Pathogenicity
B. Spread
C. Availability
D. Both “A” and “B”
53. Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the blood placental barrier?
A. Ig G
B. Ig M
C. Ig A
D. Ig D
54. Hematopoietic stem cells are precursor cells for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Lymphocytes
B. Monocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Vascular smooth muscle cells
55. Macrophages present in liver are called:
A. Microglial cells
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. Kupffer cells
D. Wondering macrophages
56. Antibiotic penicillin was introduced by:
A. Pasteur
B. Fleming
C. Jenner
D. Lister
57. Prokaryotic cell lacks:
A. DNA
B. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Plasma membrane
58. Immunity against yellow fever in newborn is an example of:
A. Active naturally acquired
B. Passive artificially acquired
C. Passive naturally acquired
D. Artificial immunity
59. All structures are external to cell wall EXCEPT:
A. Glycocalyx
B. Flagella
C. Pilli
D. Spores
60. A typical bacterial cell has only _____ volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.
A. 1/10
B. 1/100
C. 1/1000
D. 1/10000
61. PCR reaction includes all, EXCEPT:
A. DNA ligase
B. Four dNTPs
C. DNA template
D. DNA polymerase
62. If disease is endemic, prevalence equals to:
A. C x I
B. I x D
C. P x D
D. C x D
63. Southern hybridization is used to identify:
A. A specific protein
B. A specific RNA sequence
C. A specific DNA sequence
D. Both “A” and “B”
64. All of the following bacteria are members of family Enterobacteriaceae EXCEPT:
A. E. coli
B. Shigella
C. Staphylococcus
D. Salmonella
65. A library of DNA fragments results from the use of:
A. Viruses
B. Restriction endonucleases
C. DNA ligases
D. Plasmids
66. Swarming growth is the characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria known as:
A. Clostridium
B. Proteus
C. Pasteurella
D. Pseudomonas
67. Mesophilic bacteria CANNOT grow at temperature:
A. 16°C
B. 25°C
C. 35°C
D. 38°C
68. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow in presence of:
A. Only O2
B. O2 and also CO2
C. Only CO2
D. N2
69. Mannitol salt agar is an example of:
A. Selective medium
B. Differential medium
C. Both “A” and “B”
D. Enrichment medium
70. Translation occurs in:
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm
C. Ribosomes
71. Aflatoxin is produced by:
A. Candida
B. Aspergillus flavus
C. Penicillium
D. Clostridium
72. HIV infects most commonly:
A. CD4+ cells
B. CD8+ cells
C. B-lymphocytes
D. Basophils
73. Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:
A. Dog
B. Cat
C. Human
D. Sheep
74. Cell-mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
75. Vaccination is based on the principle of:
A. Agglutination
B. Phagocytosis
C. Immunological memory
D. Clonal deletion
76. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______:
A. Agglutination
B. Precipitation
C. Flocculation
D. CFT
77. Preliminary screening can be done by:
A. restriction enzyme
B. dyes
C. antibiotics
D. radiation
78. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Dendritic cells
D. Langerhans cells
79. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic determinants of a disease?
A. Specie
B. Environment
C. Genetics
D. Both “A” and “B”
80. Which of the following substance can only induce immune response after binding to a larger molecule?
A. Antigen
B. Virus
C. Hapten
D. Antibody
81. Immunoglobulin which can cross placenta is:
A. Ig A
B. Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig G
82. Gram-negative bacteria are resistant to:
A. Penicillin
B. Lysozyme
C. Vancomycin
D. All of the above
83. The most potent known immunogenic agent is:
A. Lipids
B. Polysaccharides
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids
84. Neutrophils primarily respond to:
A. Viral infections
B. Parasitic infections
C. Bacterial infections
D. Fungal infections
85. The term 'antigenic drift' refers to:
A. Major changes in antigenic properties
B. Minor changes in antigenic properties
C. Genetic reassortment
D. Antibody enhancement
86. Bacteria that can cause gas gangrene is:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
87. Which organism is commonly associated with food poisoning due to improper canning?
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus aureus
88. The most effective method for sterilizing heat-sensitive equipment is:
A. Dry heat sterilization
B. Moist heat sterilization
C. Ethylene oxide sterilization
D. Gamma radiation
89. The enzyme responsible for the destruction of bacterial cell wall is:
A. Lysozyme
B. Amylase
C. Protease
D. Lipase
90. Which of the following bacteria is known for forming endospores?
A. Bacillus
B. Escherichia
C. Staphylococcus
D. Streptococcus
91. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is:
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenzae
92. In microbiological terms, the term 'aseptic' refers to:
A. Free of pathogens
B. Free of all microorganisms
C. Sterilized environment
D. All of the above
93. The causative agent of syphilis is:
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Mycoplasma
94. The primary cell type responsible for the antibody response is:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. NK cells
D. Macrophages
95. The most common viral infection in humans is:
A. Influenza
B. Rhinovirus
C. Hepatitis
D. Herpes
96. Which of the following is a common virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. Capsule
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Endotoxin
97. Which one is NOT a common feature of bacterial cells?
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleus
C. Plasma membrane
D. Cytoplasm
98. The infection that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues is known as:
A. Autoimmune disease
B. Infectious disease
C. Congenital disease
D. None of the above
99. Which of the following vaccines is live attenuated?
A. Polio (Sabin)
B. Polio (Salk)
C. Influenza (injected)
D. Tetanus
100. Bacteria that can survive in extreme environments are known as:
A. Mesophiles
B. Psychrophiles
C. Extremophiles
D. Thermophiles
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